1.Which of the following best describes what the master.info file contains and how it is used?
A. It contains the values from the CHANGE MASTER statement.
B. When the slave restarts it looks for which master to use from this file.
C. It contains information about the master server, its slaves and its configuration.
D. It is used by an administrator to determine what slaves connect to the master, and other information
about the master server.
Answer: D
2.Which of the following statements are required to create a key cache of 4 MB, assign the MyISAM table
world. City to it and preload the index.?
A. mysql> SET GLOBAL city_cache.key_buffer_size = 4194304;mysql> CACHE INDEX world.City IN
city_cache;mysql> LOAD INDEX INTO CACHE world.City;
B. mysql> ALTER TABLE world.city KEY_CACHE = 4194304;
C. mysql> CREATE CACHE FOR world.City SIZE = 4194304;
D. It is not possible to create a key cache for a specific MyISAM table, only the global key cache can be
used.
Answer: A
3.How can the SHOW PROCESSLIST command be helpful when optimizing queries?
A. It shows if a query is using an index or not.
B. It shows how the server processes a query.
C. If checked periodically, it can reveal queries that cause other queries to hang.
D. It shows the percentage of processing power that each query is using on a server.
Answer: C
4.Consider the following:
mysql> EXPLAIN SELECT Name FROM Country WHERE Code = 'CAN'\G
*************************** 1. row ***************************
id: 1
select_type: SIMPLE
table: Country
type: const
possible_keys: PRIMARY
key: PRIMARY
key_len: 3
ref: const
rows: 1
Extra:
Which of the following best describes the meaning of the value of the type column?
A. The table has exactly one row.
B. Several rows may be read from the table.
C. Only one row of all its rows need to be read.
Answer: C
5.Which of the following best describes why InnoDB tables should always have primary keys and
why they should be short?
A. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate tables, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
B. Because InnoDB uses primary keys to locate table rows, and shorter keys make quicker lookups.
C. Because InnoDB stores pointers in a log to all the primary keys and shorter keys make this log smaller.
Answer: B
6.Which of the following best describes how the relay log works?
A. It records the times when the slave connects to the master.
B. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is recorded in the relay log first and
processed later.
C. When a slave receives a change from the master, it is processed first and then recorded in the relay
log.
Answer: B
7.With replication, what on the master is used to send commands to the slave?
A. The relay log.
B. The binary log.
C. The SQL Thread.
Answer: B
8.Given the following MyISAM table structure:
mysql> desc city;
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------
+
| Field | Type | Null | Key | Default | Extra
|
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------
+
| ID | int(11) | | PRI | NULL | auto_increment
|
| Name | char(35) | | | |
|
| CountryCode | char(3) | | | |
|
| District | char(20) | | | | |
| Population | int(11) | | MUL | 0 | |
+-------------+----------+------+-----+---------+----------------+
and the following SQL statement:
SELECT Population
FROM city
WHERE Population = 10000
ORDER BY Population
LIMIT 5;
Which of the following statements best describes how MySQL optimizer executes the query?
A. The optimizer uses the primary key column ID to read the index values, then uses the index on
Population to filter the results. The optimizer will always choose to use a unique index first, then use a
secondary index if available.
B. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search and filter the WHERE clause.
A temporary table is used to perform a filesort on the results, and then only 5 records are returned to the
client.
C. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
then returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only, because the index contains just integer values that form a leftmost prefix for
the key.
D. The optimizer uses the index on the Population column to search, filter and sort the Population column,
and returns 5 records to the client. The optimizer does not need to read the data rows, and can return
values from the index only because only those columns where specified in the
SELECT statement.
E. The optimizer will never read data from disk, since MySQL caches both data and index in the key
buffer.
Answer: D
9.The stored function year_to_date is created by the 'root'@'localhost' account as follows:
CREATE FUNCTION year_to_date ()
RETURNS DECIMAL(10,2)
SQL SECURITY DEFINER
BEGIN ...
END;
Within the routine body, a number of calculations are made on data in the financials table and the
calculated value is returned. The only account which can access the financials table is 'root'@'localhost'.
If a client connects with the account 'joe'@'localhost' and calls the year_to_date function, what will
happen?
A. The function will always execute as if it was 'root'@'localhost' that invoked it since SQL
SECURITY
DEFINER has been specified.
B. The function will not execute, as 'joe'@'localhost' does not have access to the financials table
C. The function will not execute as SQL SECURITY DEFINER has been specified. It would execute if
instead SQL SECURITY INVOKER had been specified
D. If the account 'joe'@'localhost' has the EXECUTE privilege on year_to_date, the function will complete
successfully
Answer: D
10.How can stored routines be used to check for constraints or legality of incoming data?
A. They can make use of the VALIDATE DEFINER setting.
B. They can not be used to check for constraints or legality of data.
C. They can check and only perform an action if the incoming values match a specified value.
Answer: C
11.Which of the following statements about the slow query log is true?
A. The slow query log will always contain just slow queries.
B. The slow query log may not always contain just slow queries.
C. The slow query log always logs more than just slow queries.
Answer: B
12.When working with stored routines, which of the following are true in regards to the effect on the
amount of data exchanged between client and server?
A. They may increase the amount of data exchanged.
B. They can help reduce the amount of data exchanged.
C. They have no effect on the amount of data exchanged.
Answer: B
13.Which of the following statements are true of how access control is based?
A. It is based off of an access control table in the mysql database.
B. It is based off of grant tables in the mysql database.
C. It is based off of an access control list stored in the data directory.
D. It is based off of an access control list stored inside the .frm files of each table.
Answer: B
14.Consider the following GRANT statement:
GRANT USAGE ON *.* TO 'kofi'@'localhost' IDENTIFIED BY 'password'
What is the implications of executing that statement?
A. Kofi can access all database objects.
B. Kofi can access all his tables.
C. Kofi can display server system and status variables.
D. Kofi can grant privileges to others.
E. Kofi can access all database objects belonging to localhost.
Answer: C
15.Consider the following query:
GRANT ALL ON world.* TO 'web'@'hostname'
What privileges would this give this user?
A. All privileges including GRANT.
B. All privileges except GRANT.
C. SELECT, INSERT, UPDATE and DELETE
D. ALL can not be used when granting privileges.
Answer: B
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1.Which one of the following statements can be used to start MySQL 5.0 manually from the command line
on windows?
A. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqladmin -u root start
B. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqld
C. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysql_start
Answer: B
2.Another user has issued LOCK TABLES pets READ You can...?
A. Update table pets
B. SELECT from table pets
C. UPDATE and SELECT from table pets
D. None of the above
Answer: B
3.Which of the following statements are true for locks established by the InnoDB storage engine?
A. It sometimes escalates locks to page level.
B. It sometimes escalates locks to table level.
C. It sometimes escalates locks to page or table level.
D. It never escalates locks to page or table level.
Answer: D
4.Which of the following is true for how the InnoDB storage engine uses diskspace?
A. It stores its data, index and undo information all in its own tablespace.
B. It stores its data in .MYD files, in the respective database directory, and its index and undo information
in its own tablespace.
C. It stores its data and index in .MYD and .MYI files, in the respective database directory, and undo
information in its own tablespace.
D. It stores its data, index and undo information in .MYD and .MYI files, in the respective database
directory.
Answer: A
5.Which of the following is true for the command-line programs mysqlcheck and myisamchk?
A. mysqlcheck must run on the server to perform checks and repairs and myisamchk can perform checks
and repairs on a remote server.
B. mysqlcheck can perform checks and repairs on a remote server, and myisamchk must run on the
server.
C. Both mysqlcheck and myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
D. Neither mysqlcheck or myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
Answer: B
6.MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is handled by it's
own thread.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
7.mysqldump can be instructed to dump...
A. Only table structures
B. Only data
C. Both table structures and data
Answer: C
8.Which of the following is true of a MySQL client and server?
A. They must be run on the same type of Operating System.
B. They must be run on the same hardware architecture.
C. They do not have to be run on the same type of Operating System.
D. They do not have to be run on the same hardware architecture.
Answer: C,D
9.Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A. Connector/J
B. Connector/ODBC
C. C API
D. Connector/NET
E. Connector/MJX
Answer: C
10.Of the following mechanisms available to connect a MySQL client to a MySQL database server, which
types of connections are only available on Windows based systems?
A. TCP/IP
B. Sockets
C. Shared Memory
D. Named Pipes
Answer: C,D
11.Which of the following statements correctly describes the way to enable and use shared memory
connections to the MySQL database server?
A. Shared memory connections are available by default on all platforms, but must have TCP/IP
networking disabled by using the --skip-networking option.
B. Shared memory connections are supported on all windows binaries, and is enabled by default.
C. Shared memory connections are supported on all windows binaries, and must be enabled by using the
--shared-memory command line option.
D. Shared memory is not a supported communication method for the MySQL database server.
Answer: C
12.Which mysqld command line option disables incoming TCP/IP connections?
A. --shared-memory
B. --memlock
C. --no-networking
D. --skip-networking
Answer: D
13.When making connections to a MySQL server on a Unix platform, which of the following is true?
A. TCP/IP connections are faster than socket file connections.
B. Socket file connections are faster than TCP/IP connections.
C. TCP/IP and Socket file connections are equally as fast.
Answer: B
14.Which of the following best describes the processing model for how the MySQL server handles
queries?
A. The server uses a one-tier processing model in which each storage engine optimizes and processes
each query issued against it.
B. The server uses a two-tier processing model: a SQL/optimizer tier and a storage engine tier.
C. The server uses a three-tier processing model: a SQL/optimizer tier, a formatting tier and a storage
engine tier.
Answer: B
15.Which of the following best describes how MySQL utilizes the grant table buffers?
A. The grant table buffer loads grant table information into memory for fast access.
B. The grant table buffer loads what users are currently logged in and performing queries.
C. The grant table buffer holds requests waiting to check the grant table to perform access-control.
Answer: A
16.In a standard MySQL installation which of following files are stored below the data directory?
A. Format files for all the tables
B. Data and index files for MyISAM tables
C. InnoDB tablespace files
D. General server logs
E. MySQL upgrade script files
Answer: A,B,C,D
17.Where is the data stored for a table that is defined as using the FEDERATED Storage Engine?
A. The data will always be stored on the local host.
B. The data will always be stored on a remote host.
C. The data can be stored on any host depending on the definition of the table.
D. The data will always be stored on disk.
E. The data will always be stored in memory.
F. The data will be stored according to the storage engine of the referenced table.
Answer: B
18.Which of the following statements are true regarding the data directory on a Windows binary
installation?
A. A script needs to be run to initialize it after installation.
B. It comes pre-initialized.
C. You can choose to pre-initialize it or initialize it manually during the installation.
Answer: B
19.Which of the following are requirements for InnoDB binary portability?
A. Both machines must use the same operating system.
B. Database and table names must use lowercase format.
C. Both machines must use two's-complement integer arithmetic.
D. Both machines must use IEEE floating-point format or contain no floating-point columns.
Answer: B
20.Which of the following package types are provided specifically for UNIX-style OS installations?
A. Essentials
B. RPM
C. Source
D. tar-packaged binary
Answer: B
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on windows?
A. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqladmin -u root start
B. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysqld
C. C:\> C:\Program Files\MySQL\MySQL Server 5.0\bin\mysql_start
Answer: B
2.Another user has issued LOCK TABLES pets READ You can...?
A. Update table pets
B. SELECT from table pets
C. UPDATE and SELECT from table pets
D. None of the above
Answer: B
3.Which of the following statements are true for locks established by the InnoDB storage engine?
A. It sometimes escalates locks to page level.
B. It sometimes escalates locks to table level.
C. It sometimes escalates locks to page or table level.
D. It never escalates locks to page or table level.
Answer: D
4.Which of the following is true for how the InnoDB storage engine uses diskspace?
A. It stores its data, index and undo information all in its own tablespace.
B. It stores its data in .MYD files, in the respective database directory, and its index and undo information
in its own tablespace.
C. It stores its data and index in .MYD and .MYI files, in the respective database directory, and undo
information in its own tablespace.
D. It stores its data, index and undo information in .MYD and .MYI files, in the respective database
directory.
Answer: A
5.Which of the following is true for the command-line programs mysqlcheck and myisamchk?
A. mysqlcheck must run on the server to perform checks and repairs and myisamchk can perform checks
and repairs on a remote server.
B. mysqlcheck can perform checks and repairs on a remote server, and myisamchk must run on the
server.
C. Both mysqlcheck and myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
D. Neither mysqlcheck or myisamchk can perform checks and repairs on a remote server.
Answer: B
6.MySQL is a multi-threaded database server. Every connection to the database server is handled by it's
own thread.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
7.mysqldump can be instructed to dump...
A. Only table structures
B. Only data
C. Both table structures and data
Answer: C
8.Which of the following is true of a MySQL client and server?
A. They must be run on the same type of Operating System.
B. They must be run on the same hardware architecture.
C. They do not have to be run on the same type of Operating System.
D. They do not have to be run on the same hardware architecture.
Answer: C,D
9.Which of the following APIs/connectors are included in a MySQL distribution?
A. Connector/J
B. Connector/ODBC
C. C API
D. Connector/NET
E. Connector/MJX
Answer: C
10.Of the following mechanisms available to connect a MySQL client to a MySQL database server, which
types of connections are only available on Windows based systems?
A. TCP/IP
B. Sockets
C. Shared Memory
D. Named Pipes
Answer: C,D
11.Which of the following statements correctly describes the way to enable and use shared memory
connections to the MySQL database server?
A. Shared memory connections are available by default on all platforms, but must have TCP/IP
networking disabled by using the --skip-networking option.
B. Shared memory connections are supported on all windows binaries, and is enabled by default.
C. Shared memory connections are supported on all windows binaries, and must be enabled by using the
--shared-memory command line option.
D. Shared memory is not a supported communication method for the MySQL database server.
Answer: C
12.Which mysqld command line option disables incoming TCP/IP connections?
A. --shared-memory
B. --memlock
C. --no-networking
D. --skip-networking
Answer: D
13.When making connections to a MySQL server on a Unix platform, which of the following is true?
A. TCP/IP connections are faster than socket file connections.
B. Socket file connections are faster than TCP/IP connections.
C. TCP/IP and Socket file connections are equally as fast.
Answer: B
14.Which of the following best describes the processing model for how the MySQL server handles
queries?
A. The server uses a one-tier processing model in which each storage engine optimizes and processes
each query issued against it.
B. The server uses a two-tier processing model: a SQL/optimizer tier and a storage engine tier.
C. The server uses a three-tier processing model: a SQL/optimizer tier, a formatting tier and a storage
engine tier.
Answer: B
15.Which of the following best describes how MySQL utilizes the grant table buffers?
A. The grant table buffer loads grant table information into memory for fast access.
B. The grant table buffer loads what users are currently logged in and performing queries.
C. The grant table buffer holds requests waiting to check the grant table to perform access-control.
Answer: A
16.In a standard MySQL installation which of following files are stored below the data directory?
A. Format files for all the tables
B. Data and index files for MyISAM tables
C. InnoDB tablespace files
D. General server logs
E. MySQL upgrade script files
Answer: A,B,C,D
17.Where is the data stored for a table that is defined as using the FEDERATED Storage Engine?
A. The data will always be stored on the local host.
B. The data will always be stored on a remote host.
C. The data can be stored on any host depending on the definition of the table.
D. The data will always be stored on disk.
E. The data will always be stored in memory.
F. The data will be stored according to the storage engine of the referenced table.
Answer: B
18.Which of the following statements are true regarding the data directory on a Windows binary
installation?
A. A script needs to be run to initialize it after installation.
B. It comes pre-initialized.
C. You can choose to pre-initialize it or initialize it manually during the installation.
Answer: B
19.Which of the following are requirements for InnoDB binary portability?
A. Both machines must use the same operating system.
B. Database and table names must use lowercase format.
C. Both machines must use two's-complement integer arithmetic.
D. Both machines must use IEEE floating-point format or contain no floating-point columns.
Answer: B
20.Which of the following package types are provided specifically for UNIX-style OS installations?
A. Essentials
B. RPM
C. Source
D. tar-packaged binary
Answer: B
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1.Adam works as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. He creates a table named Students.
He wants to create a new table named Class with the help of the Students table. Which of the following
syntaxes will Adam use to accomplish the task?
A. CREATE TABLE Class
INSERT INTO SELECT * FROM Students;
B. CREATE TABLE Class
FROM SELECT * FROM Students;
C. CREATE TABLE Class
(SELECT * FROM Students);
D. CREATE TABLE Class
AS SELECT * FROM Students;
Answer: D
2.You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created two tables named Employees and Departments in the database. Now, you want to
display data from both tables. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task.?
A. Join
B. Table Merge operator
C. HAVING
D. GROUP BY
Answer: A
3.Which of the following terms is described in the statement below?
"It is procedural code that is automatically executed in response to certain events on a particular table or
view in a database."
A. Data type
B. Table
C. Datetime data type
D. Database trigger
Answer: D
4.You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database
development platform. You have created a table named Employees in the database.
You want to display the names of the employees whose salary is more than $5000, but you do not want to
display any duplicate content. Therefore, you have written the following query:
SELECT emp_id, DISTINCT emp_name WHERE salary > 5000
FROM Employees;
Which of the following statements is true about the above query?
A. The statement will display only unique names whose salary is more than $5000.
B. The UNIQUE clause should be used in place of the DISTINCT clause.
C. The statement will give an error.
D. The statement will display those records whose salary is more than $5000.
Answer: C
5.Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
The ________data type defines a date that is combined with a time of day along with fractional seconds
that is based on a 24-hour clock.
A. datetime
Answer: A
6.You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as the database
platform. You have created a table named Students in the database. The structure of the table is as
follows:
Stu_ID NUMBER (3) PRIMARY KEY
Stu_Name VARCHAR2 (25) NOT NULL
Fee NUMBER (8, 2)
Class NUMBER (5);
You have executed the following statement for the table "Students":
SELECT e.Stu_Name, m.Fee
FROM Students e, Students m
WHERE e.Stu_ID = m.stu_ID;
Which of the following join types have you used in the above statement?
A. Cross join
B. Equijoin
C. Self join
D. Outer join
Answer: C
7.Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
A ______specifies that the value of a column (or columns), upon which the index is based, must be
unique.
A. unique index
Answer: A
8.You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created a new table named Employees, which keeps all the information of the
employees. You want to add a new row to the Employees table. Which of the following statements will you
use to accomplish the task?
A. INSERT (column1, column2, ...columnN) INTO VALUES(value1, value2, ...v alueN);
B. INSERT INTO(column1, column2, ...columnN) VALUES(value1 ,value2,
...va lueN);
C. INSERT(column1, column2, ...columnN), VALUES(value1, value2, ...valueN );
D. INSERT INTO(column1, column2,... columnN), VALUES(value1, value2, ...v alueN);
Answer: B
9.Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
A______ provides a concise and flexible means for matching strings of text,
such as particular characters, words, or patterns of characters.
A. regular expression
Answer: A
10.Which of the following are true about UPDATE statements?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. You can use the WHERE clause to have your update affects a specific set of rows.
B. You use the SET clause to update multiple columns of a table separated by commas.
C. You can use co-related sub query in UPDATE statements to update data from other tables.
D. If you don't use the WHERE clause then the UPDATE will not update any rows in the table.
Answer: A,B,C
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He wants to create a new table named Class with the help of the Students table. Which of the following
syntaxes will Adam use to accomplish the task?
A. CREATE TABLE Class
INSERT INTO SELECT * FROM Students;
B. CREATE TABLE Class
FROM SELECT * FROM Students;
C. CREATE TABLE Class
(SELECT * FROM Students);
D. CREATE TABLE Class
AS SELECT * FROM Students;
Answer: D
2.You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created two tables named Employees and Departments in the database. Now, you want to
display data from both tables. Which of the following actions will you perform to accomplish the task.?
A. Join
B. Table Merge operator
C. HAVING
D. GROUP BY
Answer: A
3.Which of the following terms is described in the statement below?
"It is procedural code that is automatically executed in response to certain events on a particular table or
view in a database."
A. Data type
B. Table
C. Datetime data type
D. Database trigger
Answer: D
4.You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database
development platform. You have created a table named Employees in the database.
You want to display the names of the employees whose salary is more than $5000, but you do not want to
display any duplicate content. Therefore, you have written the following query:
SELECT emp_id, DISTINCT emp_name WHERE salary > 5000
FROM Employees;
Which of the following statements is true about the above query?
A. The statement will display only unique names whose salary is more than $5000.
B. The UNIQUE clause should be used in place of the DISTINCT clause.
C. The statement will give an error.
D. The statement will display those records whose salary is more than $5000.
Answer: C
5.Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
The ________data type defines a date that is combined with a time of day along with fractional seconds
that is based on a 24-hour clock.
A. datetime
Answer: A
6.You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as the database
platform. You have created a table named Students in the database. The structure of the table is as
follows:
Stu_ID NUMBER (3) PRIMARY KEY
Stu_Name VARCHAR2 (25) NOT NULL
Fee NUMBER (8, 2)
Class NUMBER (5);
You have executed the following statement for the table "Students":
SELECT e.Stu_Name, m.Fee
FROM Students e, Students m
WHERE e.Stu_ID = m.stu_ID;
Which of the following join types have you used in the above statement?
A. Cross join
B. Equijoin
C. Self join
D. Outer join
Answer: C
7.Fill in the blank with the appropriate word.
A ______specifies that the value of a column (or columns), upon which the index is based, must be
unique.
A. unique index
Answer: A
8.You work as a Database Administrator for Pass4sure.com. The company uses MySQL as its database.
You have created a new table named Employees, which keeps all the information of the
employees. You want to add a new row to the Employees table. Which of the following statements will you
use to accomplish the task?
A. INSERT (column1, column2, ...columnN) INTO
B. INSERT INTO
...va lueN);
C. INSERT
D. INSERT INTO
Answer: B
9.Fill in the blank with the appropriate term.
A______ provides a concise and flexible means for matching strings of text,
such as particular characters, words, or patterns of characters.
A. regular expression
Answer: A
10.Which of the following are true about UPDATE statements?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. You can use the WHERE clause to have your update affects a specific set of rows.
B. You use the SET clause to update multiple columns of a table separated by commas.
C. You can use co-related sub query in UPDATE statements to update data from other tables.
D. If you don't use the WHERE clause then the UPDATE will not update any rows in the table.
Answer: A,B,C
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1.How would a MIDlet that uses a GameCanvas efficiently update only a small region of the screen, from
the data in the off-screen buffer?
A. call flushGraphics(int, int, int, int) that specifies the region to be flushed
B. call serviceRepaints() and set a clip region on the Graphics object in paint()
C. Pixels that are NOT to be flushed should be made transparent.
D. write extra code to coalesce the flushGraphics() calls over many loops into one call
Answer: A
2.Which three are true.? (Choose three.)
A. A MIDlet suite consists of only one JAR file.
B. Different MIDlet suites can share data with each other.
C. A MIDlet suite can have more than one class that extends the MIDlet class.
D. A MIDlet suite is an array of MIDlet objects.
E. The names of MIDlet classes that belong to different MIDlet suites must be different.
Answer: A,B,C
3.Which method is initially called when the MIDlet starts in response to a push notification?
A. PushRegistry.listConnections()
B. PushRegistry.notifyIncomingConnection()
C. MIDlet.startApp()
D. MIDlet.notifyApp()
E. MIDlet.pushApp()
F. MIDlet.resumeRequest()
Answer: C
4.Given:
21. TextField tf = new TextField("Memo", "", 50, TextField.ANY);
22. DateField df = new DateField("Date", DateField.DATE_TIME);
23. Form fm = new Form("Form demo");
24. Command cmCount = new Command("Word count", Command.ITEM, 1);
25. Command cmExit = new Command("Exit", Command.EXIT, 1);
26.
27. tf.addCommand(cmCount);
28. fm.append(df);
29. fm.append(tf);
30. fm.addCommand(cmExit);
31. fm.setCommandListener(this);
Which is true?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. The cmCount and cmExit commands is always available on fm, regardless of which Item is active.
C. Compilation fails.
D. The cmCount command is available only when tf is the active Item.
E. The cmExit command is available only when df is the active Item.
Answer: D
6.Given:
10. MessageConnection conn;
11.
12. public void startApp() {
13. try {
14. conn = (MessageConnection) Connector.open("cbs://:3382");
15. //...
17. } catch (Exception e) {
18. //...
20. }
21. }
22.
30. public void run() {
31. Message msg = conn.receive();
32. //...
40. conn.send(msg);
41. }
What is the result?
A. An error at line 40 causes an exception at runtime.
B. An error at line 14 causes compile to fail.
C. An error at line 31 causes an exception at runtime.
D. The code successfully sends a message.
E. An error at line 14 causes an exception at runtime.
Answer: A
8.Given the push connection string:
MIDlet-Push-1: socket://:79, com.sun.example.SampleChat, 192.3?.?.*
Which two addresses are allowed to push connection notifications to the application? (Choose two.)
A. 192.31.101.1
B. 192.32.1.101
C. 192.310.101.1
D. 192.3.1.101
E. 192.31.1.1
F. 192.310.10.1
Answer: B,E
9.A MIDlet has entered the paused state. Which is a valid action to attempt to make it active?
A. The MIDlet cannot revert back to the active state.
B. The MIDlet calls resumeRequest() through a timer.
C. The MIDlet calls its own startApp() method.
D. The MIDlet has to wait quietly to be rescheduled.
Answer: B
10.Which two are true for List? (Choose two.)
A. You can add Command objects to a List without registering a CommandListener.
B. Images and text in a List CANNOT be changed once the List is created.
C. Traversing and scrolling in a List causes events that can be programmatically detected.
D. A CommandListener must be registered for the application to recognize user selections in a List.
Answer: A,D
11.Given:
15. String addr = "sms://+14155557296";
16. MessageConnection conn
17. = (MessageConnection) Connector.open(addr);
18. // insert code here
19. message.setPayloadData(imageBytes);
Assume imageBytes is a valid byte array.
Which statement, inserted at line 18, causes the rest of the code fragment to compile correctly?
A. Message message = new BinaryMessage();
B. BinaryMessage message = (BinaryMessage)
conn.newMessage(MessageConnection.BINARY_MESSAGE);
C. Message message = conn.newMessage(MessageConnection.BINARY_MESSAGE);
D. BinaryMessage message = new BinaryMessage();
Answer: B
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the data in the off-screen buffer?
A. call flushGraphics(int, int, int, int) that specifies the region to be flushed
B. call serviceRepaints() and set a clip region on the Graphics object in paint()
C. Pixels that are NOT to be flushed should be made transparent.
D. write extra code to coalesce the flushGraphics() calls over many loops into one call
Answer: A
2.Which three are true.? (Choose three.)
A. A MIDlet suite consists of only one JAR file.
B. Different MIDlet suites can share data with each other.
C. A MIDlet suite can have more than one class that extends the MIDlet class.
D. A MIDlet suite is an array of MIDlet objects.
E. The names of MIDlet classes that belong to different MIDlet suites must be different.
Answer: A,B,C
3.Which method is initially called when the MIDlet starts in response to a push notification?
A. PushRegistry.listConnections()
B. PushRegistry.notifyIncomingConnection()
C. MIDlet.startApp()
D. MIDlet.notifyApp()
E. MIDlet.pushApp()
F. MIDlet.resumeRequest()
Answer: C
4.Given:
21. TextField tf = new TextField("Memo", "", 50, TextField.ANY);
22. DateField df = new DateField("Date", DateField.DATE_TIME);
23. Form fm = new Form("Form demo");
24. Command cmCount = new Command("Word count", Command.ITEM, 1);
25. Command cmExit = new Command("Exit", Command.EXIT, 1);
26.
27. tf.addCommand(cmCount);
28. fm.append(df);
29. fm.append(tf);
30. fm.addCommand(cmExit);
31. fm.setCommandListener(this);
Which is true?
A. An exception is thrown at runtime.
B. The cmCount and cmExit commands is always available on fm, regardless of which Item is active.
C. Compilation fails.
D. The cmCount command is available only when tf is the active Item.
E. The cmExit command is available only when df is the active Item.
Answer: D
6.Given:
10. MessageConnection conn;
11.
12. public void startApp() {
13. try {
14. conn = (MessageConnection) Connector.open("cbs://:3382");
15. //...
17. } catch (Exception e) {
18. //...
20. }
21. }
22.
30. public void run() {
31. Message msg = conn.receive();
32. //...
40. conn.send(msg);
41. }
What is the result?
A. An error at line 40 causes an exception at runtime.
B. An error at line 14 causes compile to fail.
C. An error at line 31 causes an exception at runtime.
D. The code successfully sends a message.
E. An error at line 14 causes an exception at runtime.
Answer: A
8.Given the push connection string:
MIDlet-Push-1: socket://:79, com.sun.example.SampleChat, 192.3?.?.*
Which two addresses are allowed to push connection notifications to the application? (Choose two.)
A. 192.31.101.1
B. 192.32.1.101
C. 192.310.101.1
D. 192.3.1.101
E. 192.31.1.1
F. 192.310.10.1
Answer: B,E
9.A MIDlet has entered the paused state. Which is a valid action to attempt to make it active?
A. The MIDlet cannot revert back to the active state.
B. The MIDlet calls resumeRequest() through a timer.
C. The MIDlet calls its own startApp() method.
D. The MIDlet has to wait quietly to be rescheduled.
Answer: B
10.Which two are true for List? (Choose two.)
A. You can add Command objects to a List without registering a CommandListener.
B. Images and text in a List CANNOT be changed once the List is created.
C. Traversing and scrolling in a List causes events that can be programmatically detected.
D. A CommandListener must be registered for the application to recognize user selections in a List.
Answer: A,D
11.Given:
15. String addr = "sms://+14155557296";
16. MessageConnection conn
17. = (MessageConnection) Connector.open(addr);
18. // insert code here
19. message.setPayloadData(imageBytes);
Assume imageBytes is a valid byte array.
Which statement, inserted at line 18, causes the rest of the code fragment to compile correctly?
A. Message message = new BinaryMessage();
B. BinaryMessage message = (BinaryMessage)
conn.newMessage(MessageConnection.BINARY_MESSAGE);
C. Message message = conn.newMessage(MessageConnection.BINARY_MESSAGE);
D. BinaryMessage message = new BinaryMessage();
Answer: B
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1.Given the following stateful session bean:
10. @Stateful
11. @TransactionAttributefJransactionAttributeType. SUPPORTS)
12. public class VideoBean implements Video {
13. // insert code here
14. public void methodAO {}
15.}
Assuming no other transaction-related metadata, which code can be added at Line 13 to
guarantee that business method methodA will execute only if invoked with an active transaction?
A. @TransactionAttributefJ
B. @TransactionManagement(TransactionAttributeType. CONTAINER)
C. @TransactionAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.MANDATORY)
D. @TransactionAttributeO"ransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW)
Answer: C
2.Given the following client-side code that makes use of the session bean Foo:
10. @EJB Foo beanl;
11. @EJB Foo bean2; //more code here
20. booleantestl = beanl.equals(beanl);
21. booleantest2 = beanl.equals(bean2);
Which two statements are true.? (Choose two.)
A. If Foo isstateful,testlistrue, and test2 is true.
B. IfFoo is stateful, testlis true,andtest2isfalse.
C. IfFoo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is true.
D. IfFoois stateful, testl is false, and test2 is false.
E. If Foo isstateless, testl istrue,and test2 is false.
F. If Fooisstateless, testl is false, andtest2is false.
Answer: B,C
3.Which statement about entity manager is true?
A. A container-managed entity manager must be a JTA entity manager.
B. An entity manager injected into session beans can use either JTA or resource-local transaction control.
C. An entity manager created by calling the EntityManagerFactory.createEntityManager method always
uses JTA transaction control.
D. An entity manager obtained through resource injection in a stateful session bean can use a
resource-local EntityTransaction for transaction control
Answer: A
4.Which statement is true about the use of a persist operation in a transaction?
A. If a user persists a detached object it always becomes managed.
B. The persist operation on an entity always cascades to its related entities.
C. If a user persists a new entity with an existing primary key the transaction will fail.
D. If a user persists a managed entity an exception may be thrown by the persist operation.
Answer: C
5.A developer writes a stateless session bean with one local business interface and with container
managed transactions. All business methods have transaction attribute REQUIRED. The bean has an
injected field sessionCtx of the type SessionContext.
Which two operations are allowed in a business method of the bean? (Choose two.)
A. sessionCtx. getEJBObject
B. sessionCtx.setRollbackOnly
C. sessionCtx. getMessageContext
D. sessionCtx. getBusinessObject
E. sessionCtx. getEJBLocalObject
Answer: B,D
6.A developer implements a session bean with a method doStuff which behaves differently depending on
the caller's security role. Only users in security roles "ADMIN" and "USER" are allowed to call the method.
Assume that there is no security-related metadata in the deployment descriptor. Which two, taken in
combination, are appropriate to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Annotate method doStuff with @PermitAII.
B. AnnotatemethoddoStuff with@RolesAllowed({"ADMIN","USER"})
C. If EJBContext.getCallerPrincipal returns role "ADMIN", implement thebehaviorfor users in role ADMIN.
D. If EJBContext.isCallerlnRole("ADMIN") returns true, implement the behavior defined for users in role
"ADMIN".
Answer: B,D
7.Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of
type int?
A. SELECT ANY(r. chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r. chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, lazyboy) > -1
Answer: B
8.Given:
11..Entity public class X{
12. @ld int id;
13. Y y;
14.}
A public class Y with NO Java Persistence annotations is defined in the same package.
Which statement is correct about these classes if NO other annotations and mapping descriptors are
provided?
A. Class Y must be serializable.
B. ClassYmust be marked as an entity.
C. The entity X is notdefinedcorrectly.The field y must be marked as @Lob.
D. ClassY must be accessedbyapersistenceapplication throughapublicinterface.
Answer: A
9.A developer creates a stateless session bean. This session bean needs data from a remote system.
Reading this data takes a long time. Assume that the data will NOT change during the lifetime of the bean
and that the information to connect to the remote system is defined in JNDI.
Which statement describes how to manage the data correctly?
A. Readthe datain the bean's constructor.
B. The datacan only bereadinthebean's business methods.
C. Read thedatain a method which is annotated with@PrePassivate.
D. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @Post Activate.
E. Readthedata ina methodwhich is annotated with (5)PostConstruct.
Answer: E
10.An enterprise bean has security permissions set up using declarative security features. Under which
two conditions can a client be guaranteed to have permission to invoke a business method on the
enterprise bean? (Choose two.)
A. The Application Assembler has marked the enterprise bean methodasunchecked.
B. The client's principalhas beenassigned a securityrolewithpermissionto invokethe method.
C. The Application Assembler has set the security-identity deployment descriptor to run-as.
D. TheApplicationAssemblerhas mapped all security role references using the role-link element.
Answer: A,B
11.An enterprise developer needs to modify the order of interceptor method execution specified by the
Bean Provider, but does NOT have access to the bean's source code. No deployment descriptor was
provided in the ejb-jar delivered by the Bean Provider. Which represents the solution to this problem?
A. No solution is possible under these conditions.
B. TheDeployer canadd metadataannotations totheejb-jar.
C. The Application Assembler can add metadata annotations to the ejb-jar.
D. TheSystem Administrator can addinterceptorbinding informationatruntime, using vendor-specific tools.
E. TheApplication Assembler canaddadeployment descriptor totheejb-jarthat includesinterceptor
binding information.
Answer: E
12.A developer writes a session bean which uses several configurable constants.
The constants are all defined as String types in JNDI. This cannot be changed because existing code is
using the same JNDI information. One of the constants is a date, represented in string format. This date
constant is used in multiple business methods of this session bean, actually as a Date object.
Converting strings to dates is an expensive operation; therefore, the developer wants to do as little
converting as possible.
Which two scenarios can be used to prevent converting from String to Date in every business method?
(Choose two.)
A. Loadthe date string in an instance Date type variablebyannotation of the instance variable and let the
container autoconvert it to a Datetypeautomatically.
B. Load thedate string in an instance String type variablebyannotation of this instance
variableandconvertitto aDatetype object in the beans constructor.
C. Load thedatestringinaninstanceString typevariableby annotationof this instance variable and convert it
to aDate typeobjectin a@PostConstructannotatedmethod.
D. Load the date string in an instance Date typevariableby annotation ofasetter method that takes a String
and which carries out the conversion and assigns the value totheinstance variable.
Answer: C,D
13.Which is a valid PostConstruct method in a message-driven bean class?
A. .PostConstruct public boolean initQ {return true; }
B. .PostConstruct private static void init0 {}
C. .PostConstruct private void init0 {}
D. .PostConstruct public static void initQ {}
Answer: C
14.A developer wants to create a JMS message-driven bean that responds to javax.jms.TextMessage
messages. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The developer must implement the ejbCreate method.
B. The developer does NOT need to create a business interface for the bean.
C. The developer must implement a method that declares javax.jms.TextMessage as an
argument.
D. The message-driven bean class must implement methods of the javax.jms.MessageListener interface.
E. The message-driven bean class must implement methods of the javax. ejb.
MessageDnvenBean interface.
Answer: B,D
15.A Reader entity has a one-to-many, bidirectional relationship with a Book entity. Two Reader entities
are persisted, each having two Book entities associated with them. For example, readeM has booka and
bookb, while reader2 has bookc and bookd. Which query returns a Collection of fewer than four
elements?
A. SELECT b.reader FROM Book b
B. SELECT r FROM BookbINNER JOINb.readerr
C. SELECTrFROM Reader r INNER JOIN r.booksb
D. SELECTrfrom BookbLEFT JOIN b.readerr LEFTJOINFETCHr.books
Answer: C
16.A session bean's business method throws an exception during execution.
Which two are responsibilities of the Bean Provider when throwing the exception? (Choose two.)
A. For application exceptions, ensure that if the current transaction commits there will be no loss of data
integrity.
B. For application exceptions, ensurethatthe current transaction will commit.
C. For system errors, when the client is remote, throw a java.rmi.RemoteException that wraps the original
exception.
D. For checked exceptions from which the bean cannot recover, throw an EJBException that wraps the
original exception.
Answer: A,D
17.The ejb-jar file format is a contract between which two EJB role pairs? (Choose two.)
A. Deployer and System Administrator
B. Application Assembler and Deployer
C. Bean Provider and Application Assembler
D. Bean Provider and EJB Container Provider
E. EJB Server Provider and EJB Container Provider
F. Application Assembler and EJB Container Provider
Answer: B,C
18.Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of
type int?
A. SELECT ANY(r. chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r. chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, lazyboy) > -1
Answer: B
19.A developer writes a stateful session bean called FooBean.
Which code can be inserted before Line 11 of the FooBean class to define a TYPE-level
environment dependency on a JMS Topic?
11. public class FooBean {
12.
13. public void fooQ {}
14.
15.}
A. @Resource(type=Topic. class)
B. @Resource(name="topicRef) private static Topic topic;
C. .ResourceprivateTopic topic;
D. @Resource(name="topicRef', type=Topic. class)
Answer: D
20.A developer has created an application-managed entity manager. Which statement is correct?
A. A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is created.
B. A new persistence context begins when a new JTA transaction begins.
C. A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is invoked in the context of a JTA
transaction.
D. A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is invoked in the context of a resource-local
transaction.
Answer: A
21.Given this Java EE application that uses a JTA application-managed entity manager:
20. UserTransaction utx = ...;
21. utx.beginQ;
22. // insert code here
23. utx.commitQ;
Which two code fragments can be used on Line 22 to persist an order instance assuming that all
references are properly initialized? (Choose two.
A. em.merge(order); em.flushQ;
B. em.persist(order); em.flushO;
C. em.joinTransactionO; em.persist(order);
D. em = emfcreateEntityManagerQ; em.persist(order);
Answer: C,D
22.A developer writes two session beans which cooperate. The first session bean, ShoppingCart, collects
orders and is implemented as a stateful session bean. The second session bean, CalculateDiscount, is
implemented as a stateless session bean and runs on a different server.
ShoppingCart contains the method getTotalPrice, which calculates the total price of the order in the
ShoppingCart, including discounts. Discounts are calculated by CalculateDiscount using the information
on the ShoppingCart bean, combined with data from a database. Which scenario can accomplish this?
A. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean passing
the this reference.
B. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean.
CalculateDiscount accesses the ShoppingCart instance by JNDI lookup.
C. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean passing
its reference obtained from the SessionContext.getBusinessObject method.
D. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean.
CalculateDiscount accesses the state of ShoppingCart by dependency injection.
Answer: C
23.A CMT session bean named MrBean is annotated as follows :
21. @Stateless(name="MrBean")
22. @TransactionAttribute0"ransactionAttributeType.NOT_SUPPORTED)
23. public class MrBean {
24. public void storeStuffQ {}
25. There are no transaction annotations at the method level.
Given the following snippet of an ejb-jar.xml:
23.
24.
25.MrBean
26.storeStuff
27.
28.Mandatory
29.
Which statement is correct about the business methods in MrBean?
A. All methods have transactionattributeREQUIRED.
B. All methodshavetransaction attributeMANDATORY.
C. All methodshavetransaction attribute NONSUPPORTED.
D. Methods with name store Stuff have transaction attributeMANDATORYand all other methods have
transaction attribute REQUIRED.
E. MethodswithnamestoreStuffhavetransaction attribute MANDATORY andall othermethods have
transaction attribute NONSUPPORTED.
F. Methodswithname store Stuff haveatransaction attribute REQUIRED andallother methods have
transaction attribute NOT SUPPORTED.
Answer: E
24.Which four are defined in the EJB specification as a standard EJB role? (Choose four.
A. End Point Provider
B. Persistence Provider
C. NameSpace Provider
D. JSF Interface Provider
E. ApplicationAssembler
F. EJBContainerProvider
G. EnterpriseBeanProvider
Answer: B,E,F,G
25.The syntax of the ORDER BY clause is defined in the Java Persistence API
asorderby_clause ::=ORDER BY orderbyjtem {, orderbyjtem}* Which statement is correct about the use of
ORDER BY clauses?
A. Only literals can be specified as an orderbyjtem.
B. Fields or properties of any type can be specified as an orderbyjtem.
C. The ordering must be specified if two or more orderbyjtem methods are provided.
D. If two orderbyjtem methods are provided the left orderbyjtem has the higher precedence.
Answer: D
26.A developer is writing implementation code for an EJB 3.0 message-driven bean class that processes
booking requests. Within the business logic of the onMessage method, a temporary problem can occur. In
that case the developer wants to make sure that the booking request is processed again in 30 minutes.
Which two can the developer select? (Choose two.)
A. Throwa runtimeexception torollbackthetransaction.
B. Call setRollbackOnly on the MessageDrivenContext interface.
C. Makeuseof the TimerService, and implement the TimedObject interface.
D. Make use of the TimerService,implement areprocess method, and annotate it with @Timeout.
E. Throw an application exception, and addtheretry-after attribute to the deployment descriptor.
Answer: C,D
27.Given a set of CMT bean methods with the following transaction attributes:
Method M1=SUPPORTS
Method M2=REQUIRED
Method M3=NOT_SUPPORTED
Method M4=REQUIRES_NEW
And the following method invocation sequence:
Method M1 invokes Method M2
Method M2 invokes Method M3
Method M1 invokes Method M4
If Method M1 is invoked by a method that does NOT have a transaction context, which describes a
possible scenario?
A. Method M1notransaction
MethodM2new transaction
Method M3no transaction
MethodM4newtransaction
B. Method M1notransaction
Method M2Container throws EJBTransactionRequiredException
C. MethodM1new transaction
Method M2runs in same transaction as M1
Method M3Container throws TransactionNotSupportedException
D. Method M1no transaction
Method M2new transaction
Method M3Container throws TransactionNotSupportedException
Answer: A
28.OldBarBean is a stateless session bean written to the EJB 2.1 API with remote home interface.
OldBarHome and remote component interface OldBar. FooBean is a stateless session bean written to the
EJB 3.0 API.
OldBarBean and FooBean are the only EJBs packaged in the ejb-jar. The FooBean portion of the ejb-jar.
xml also declares an ejb-ref whose ejb-ref-name is ejb/oldBar. The ejb-ref is linked to OldBarBean. There
are no other ejb dependencies defined.
A business method foo in FooBean needs to access OldBarBean.
Which is portable code to achieve this goal?
A. .Remote
private OldBar oldBar;
B. public void fooQ
{
try
{
InitialContext ic = new InitialContextO;
Object obj = ic.lookup("ejb/oldBar")
;
OldBarHome OldBarHome
=
(OldBarHome) PortableRemoteObject.narrow(obj,
OldBarHome.class)
;
OldBar oldBar = oldBarHome.createO;
C. @EJB private OldBarHome OldBarHome;
public void fooQ
{
try
{
OldBar oldBar = oldBarHome.createQ;
D. public void fooQ
{
try
{
InitialContext ic = new InitialContextO;
OldBarHome OldBarHome
=
(OldBarHome) ic.lookup("ejb/oldBar")
;
OldBar oldBar = oldBarHome.createQ;
Answer: C
30.A developer implemented a Java class called Store. The class is annotated correctly to act as an entity.
The developer created a stateless session bean to create, lookup, and remove Store objects. This
session bean has a container-managed entity manager injected into field em and a removeStore method
with transaction attribute REQUIRED.
Given the following code :
32. public void re move St ore (St ore store) {
33. em.remove(store); 34.}
What is a possible reason that an HlegalArgumentException is thrown at Line 33 when the
removeStore method is called by a remote client?
A. Thepassedobject is NOT serializable.
B. Thepassed object is NOT found inthedatabase.
C. The passed object is NOT managed by the entity manager.
D. There is no active transaction to manage the database removal.
Answer: C
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10. @Stateful
11. @TransactionAttributefJransactionAttributeType. SUPPORTS)
12. public class VideoBean implements Video {
13. // insert code here
14. public void methodAO {}
15.}
Assuming no other transaction-related metadata, which code can be added at Line 13 to
guarantee that business method methodA will execute only if invoked with an active transaction?
A. @TransactionAttributefJ
B. @TransactionManagement(TransactionAttributeType. CONTAINER)
C. @TransactionAttribute(TransactionAttributeType.MANDATORY)
D. @TransactionAttributeO"ransactionAttributeType.REQUIRES_NEW)
Answer: C
2.Given the following client-side code that makes use of the session bean Foo:
10. @EJB Foo beanl;
11. @EJB Foo bean2; //more code here
20. booleantestl = beanl.equals(beanl);
21. booleantest2 = beanl.equals(bean2);
Which two statements are true.? (Choose two.)
A. If Foo isstateful,testlistrue, and test2 is true.
B. IfFoo is stateful, testlis true,andtest2isfalse.
C. IfFoo is stateless, testl is true, and test2 is true.
D. IfFoois stateful, testl is false, and test2 is false.
E. If Foo isstateless, testl istrue,and test2 is false.
F. If Fooisstateless, testl is false, andtest2is false.
Answer: B,C
3.Which statement about entity manager is true?
A. A container-managed entity manager must be a JTA entity manager.
B. An entity manager injected into session beans can use either JTA or resource-local transaction control.
C. An entity manager created by calling the EntityManagerFactory.createEntityManager method always
uses JTA transaction control.
D. An entity manager obtained through resource injection in a stateful session bean can use a
resource-local EntityTransaction for transaction control
Answer: A
4.Which statement is true about the use of a persist operation in a transaction?
A. If a user persists a detached object it always becomes managed.
B. The persist operation on an entity always cascades to its related entities.
C. If a user persists a new entity with an existing primary key the transaction will fail.
D. If a user persists a managed entity an exception may be thrown by the persist operation.
Answer: C
5.A developer writes a stateless session bean with one local business interface and with container
managed transactions. All business methods have transaction attribute REQUIRED. The bean has an
injected field sessionCtx of the type SessionContext.
Which two operations are allowed in a business method of the bean? (Choose two.)
A. sessionCtx. getEJBObject
B. sessionCtx.setRollbackOnly
C. sessionCtx. getMessageContext
D. sessionCtx. getBusinessObject
E. sessionCtx. getEJBLocalObject
Answer: B,D
6.A developer implements a session bean with a method doStuff which behaves differently depending on
the caller's security role. Only users in security roles "ADMIN" and "USER" are allowed to call the method.
Assume that there is no security-related metadata in the deployment descriptor. Which two, taken in
combination, are appropriate to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
A. Annotate method doStuff with @PermitAII.
B. AnnotatemethoddoStuff with@RolesAllowed({"ADMIN","USER"})
C. If EJBContext.getCallerPrincipal returns role "ADMIN", implement thebehaviorfor users in role ADMIN.
D. If EJBContext.isCallerlnRole("ADMIN") returns true, implement the behavior defined for users in role
"ADMIN".
Answer: B,D
7.Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of
type int?
A. SELECT ANY(r. chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r. chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, lazyboy) > -1
Answer: B
8.Given:
11..Entity public class X{
12. @ld int id;
13. Y y;
14.}
A public class Y with NO Java Persistence annotations is defined in the same package.
Which statement is correct about these classes if NO other annotations and mapping descriptors are
provided?
A. Class Y must be serializable.
B. ClassYmust be marked as an entity.
C. The entity X is notdefinedcorrectly.The field y must be marked as @Lob.
D. ClassY must be accessedbyapersistenceapplication throughapublicinterface.
Answer: A
9.A developer creates a stateless session bean. This session bean needs data from a remote system.
Reading this data takes a long time. Assume that the data will NOT change during the lifetime of the bean
and that the information to connect to the remote system is defined in JNDI.
Which statement describes how to manage the data correctly?
A. Readthe datain the bean's constructor.
B. The datacan only bereadinthebean's business methods.
C. Read thedatain a method which is annotated with@PrePassivate.
D. Read the data in a method which is annotated with @Post Activate.
E. Readthedata ina methodwhich is annotated with (5)PostConstruct.
Answer: E
10.An enterprise bean has security permissions set up using declarative security features. Under which
two conditions can a client be guaranteed to have permission to invoke a business method on the
enterprise bean? (Choose two.)
A. The Application Assembler has marked the enterprise bean methodasunchecked.
B. The client's principalhas beenassigned a securityrolewithpermissionto invokethe method.
C. The Application Assembler has set the security-identity deployment descriptor to run-as.
D. TheApplicationAssemblerhas mapped all security role references using the role-link element.
Answer: A,B
11.An enterprise developer needs to modify the order of interceptor method execution specified by the
Bean Provider, but does NOT have access to the bean's source code. No deployment descriptor was
provided in the ejb-jar delivered by the Bean Provider. Which represents the solution to this problem?
A. No solution is possible under these conditions.
B. TheDeployer canadd metadataannotations totheejb-jar.
C. The Application Assembler can add metadata annotations to the ejb-jar.
D. TheSystem Administrator can addinterceptorbinding informationatruntime, using vendor-specific tools.
E. TheApplication Assembler canaddadeployment descriptor totheejb-jarthat includesinterceptor
binding information.
Answer: E
12.A developer writes a session bean which uses several configurable constants.
The constants are all defined as String types in JNDI. This cannot be changed because existing code is
using the same JNDI information. One of the constants is a date, represented in string format. This date
constant is used in multiple business methods of this session bean, actually as a Date object.
Converting strings to dates is an expensive operation; therefore, the developer wants to do as little
converting as possible.
Which two scenarios can be used to prevent converting from String to Date in every business method?
(Choose two.)
A. Loadthe date string in an instance Date type variablebyannotation of the instance variable and let the
container autoconvert it to a Datetypeautomatically.
B. Load thedate string in an instance String type variablebyannotation of this instance
variableandconvertitto aDatetype object in the beans constructor.
C. Load thedatestringinaninstanceString typevariableby annotationof this instance variable and convert it
to aDate typeobjectin a@PostConstructannotatedmethod.
D. Load the date string in an instance Date typevariableby annotation ofasetter method that takes a String
and which carries out the conversion and assigns the value totheinstance variable.
Answer: C,D
13.Which is a valid PostConstruct method in a message-driven bean class?
A. .PostConstruct public boolean initQ {return true; }
B. .PostConstruct private static void init0 {}
C. .PostConstruct private void init0 {}
D. .PostConstruct public static void initQ {}
Answer: C
14.A developer wants to create a JMS message-driven bean that responds to javax.jms.TextMessage
messages. Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. The developer must implement the ejbCreate method.
B. The developer does NOT need to create a business interface for the bean.
C. The developer must implement a method that declares javax.jms.TextMessage as an
argument.
D. The message-driven bean class must implement methods of the javax.jms.MessageListener interface.
E. The message-driven bean class must implement methods of the javax. ejb.
MessageDnvenBean interface.
Answer: B,D
15.A Reader entity has a one-to-many, bidirectional relationship with a Book entity. Two Reader entities
are persisted, each having two Book entities associated with them. For example, readeM has booka and
bookb, while reader2 has bookc and bookd. Which query returns a Collection of fewer than four
elements?
A. SELECT b.reader FROM Book b
B. SELECT r FROM BookbINNER JOINb.readerr
C. SELECTrFROM Reader r INNER JOIN r.booksb
D. SELECTrfrom BookbLEFT JOIN b.readerr LEFTJOINFETCHr.books
Answer: C
16.A session bean's business method throws an exception during execution.
Which two are responsibilities of the Bean Provider when throwing the exception? (Choose two.)
A. For application exceptions, ensure that if the current transaction commits there will be no loss of data
integrity.
B. For application exceptions, ensurethatthe current transaction will commit.
C. For system errors, when the client is remote, throw a java.rmi.RemoteException that wraps the original
exception.
D. For checked exceptions from which the bean cannot recover, throw an EJBException that wraps the
original exception.
Answer: A,D
17.The ejb-jar file format is a contract between which two EJB role pairs? (Choose two.)
A. Deployer and System Administrator
B. Application Assembler and Deployer
C. Bean Provider and Application Assembler
D. Bean Provider and EJB Container Provider
E. EJB Server Provider and EJB Container Provider
F. Application Assembler and EJB Container Provider
Answer: B,C
18.Which Java Persistence query uses the aggregate function correctly, assuming that chairs field is of
type int?
A. SELECT ANY(r. chairs) FROM Room r
B. SELECT NEW Integer(MAX(r. chairs)) FROM Room r
C. SELECT r FROM Room r WHERE r.chairs > AVG(r.chairs)
D. SELECT c FROM Chair c WHERE LOCATE (c.type, lazyboy) > -1
Answer: B
19.A developer writes a stateful session bean called FooBean.
Which code can be inserted before Line 11 of the FooBean class to define a TYPE-level
environment dependency on a JMS Topic?
11. public class FooBean {
12.
13. public void fooQ {}
14.
15.}
A. @Resource(type=Topic. class)
B. @Resource(name="topicRef) private static Topic topic;
C. .ResourceprivateTopic topic;
D. @Resource(name="topicRef', type=Topic. class)
Answer: D
20.A developer has created an application-managed entity manager. Which statement is correct?
A. A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is created.
B. A new persistence context begins when a new JTA transaction begins.
C. A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is invoked in the context of a JTA
transaction.
D. A new persistence context begins when the entity manager is invoked in the context of a resource-local
transaction.
Answer: A
21.Given this Java EE application that uses a JTA application-managed entity manager:
20. UserTransaction utx = ...;
21. utx.beginQ;
22. // insert code here
23. utx.commitQ;
Which two code fragments can be used on Line 22 to persist an order instance assuming that all
references are properly initialized? (Choose two.
A. em.merge(order); em.flushQ;
B. em.persist(order); em.flushO;
C. em.joinTransactionO; em.persist(order);
D. em = emfcreateEntityManagerQ; em.persist(order);
Answer: C,D
22.A developer writes two session beans which cooperate. The first session bean, ShoppingCart, collects
orders and is implemented as a stateful session bean. The second session bean, CalculateDiscount, is
implemented as a stateless session bean and runs on a different server.
ShoppingCart contains the method getTotalPrice, which calculates the total price of the order in the
ShoppingCart, including discounts. Discounts are calculated by CalculateDiscount using the information
on the ShoppingCart bean, combined with data from a database. Which scenario can accomplish this?
A. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean passing
the this reference.
B. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean.
CalculateDiscount accesses the ShoppingCart instance by JNDI lookup.
C. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean passing
its reference obtained from the SessionContext.getBusinessObject method.
D. The CalculateDiscount offers a method calculate which is invoked by the ShoppingCart bean.
CalculateDiscount accesses the state of ShoppingCart by dependency injection.
Answer: C
23.A CMT session bean named MrBean is annotated as follows :
21. @Stateless(name="MrBean")
22. @TransactionAttribute0"ransactionAttributeType.NOT_SUPPORTED)
23. public class MrBean {
24. public void storeStuffQ {}
25. There are no transaction annotations at the method level.
Given the following snippet of an ejb-jar.xml:
23.
24.
25.
26.
27.
28.
29.
Which statement is correct about the business methods in MrBean?
A. All methods have transactionattributeREQUIRED.
B. All methodshavetransaction attributeMANDATORY.
C. All methodshavetransaction attribute NONSUPPORTED.
D. Methods with name store Stuff have transaction attributeMANDATORYand all other methods have
transaction attribute REQUIRED.
E. MethodswithnamestoreStuffhavetransaction attribute MANDATORY andall othermethods have
transaction attribute NONSUPPORTED.
F. Methodswithname store Stuff haveatransaction attribute REQUIRED andallother methods have
transaction attribute NOT SUPPORTED.
Answer: E
24.Which four are defined in the EJB specification as a standard EJB role? (Choose four.
A. End Point Provider
B. Persistence Provider
C. NameSpace Provider
D. JSF Interface Provider
E. ApplicationAssembler
F. EJBContainerProvider
G. EnterpriseBeanProvider
Answer: B,E,F,G
25.The syntax of the ORDER BY clause is defined in the Java Persistence API
asorderby_clause ::=ORDER BY orderbyjtem {, orderbyjtem}* Which statement is correct about the use of
ORDER BY clauses?
A. Only literals can be specified as an orderbyjtem.
B. Fields or properties of any type can be specified as an orderbyjtem.
C. The ordering must be specified if two or more orderbyjtem methods are provided.
D. If two orderbyjtem methods are provided the left orderbyjtem has the higher precedence.
Answer: D
26.A developer is writing implementation code for an EJB 3.0 message-driven bean class that processes
booking requests. Within the business logic of the onMessage method, a temporary problem can occur. In
that case the developer wants to make sure that the booking request is processed again in 30 minutes.
Which two can the developer select? (Choose two.)
A. Throwa runtimeexception torollbackthetransaction.
B. Call setRollbackOnly on the MessageDrivenContext interface.
C. Makeuseof the TimerService, and implement the TimedObject interface.
D. Make use of the TimerService,implement areprocess method, and annotate it with @Timeout.
E. Throw an application exception, and addtheretry-after attribute to the deployment descriptor.
Answer: C,D
27.Given a set of CMT bean methods with the following transaction attributes:
Method M1=SUPPORTS
Method M2=REQUIRED
Method M3=NOT_SUPPORTED
Method M4=REQUIRES_NEW
And the following method invocation sequence:
Method M1 invokes Method M2
Method M2 invokes Method M3
Method M1 invokes Method M4
If Method M1 is invoked by a method that does NOT have a transaction context, which describes a
possible scenario?
A. Method M1notransaction
MethodM2new transaction
Method M3no transaction
MethodM4newtransaction
B. Method M1notransaction
Method M2Container throws EJBTransactionRequiredException
C. MethodM1new transaction
Method M2runs in same transaction as M1
Method M3Container throws TransactionNotSupportedException
D. Method M1no transaction
Method M2new transaction
Method M3Container throws TransactionNotSupportedException
Answer: A
28.OldBarBean is a stateless session bean written to the EJB 2.1 API with remote home interface.
OldBarHome and remote component interface OldBar. FooBean is a stateless session bean written to the
EJB 3.0 API.
OldBarBean and FooBean are the only EJBs packaged in the ejb-jar. The FooBean portion of the ejb-jar.
xml also declares an ejb-ref whose ejb-ref-name is ejb/oldBar. The ejb-ref is linked to OldBarBean. There
are no other ejb dependencies defined.
A business method foo in FooBean needs to access OldBarBean.
Which is portable code to achieve this goal?
A. .Remote
private OldBar oldBar;
B. public void fooQ
{
try
{
InitialContext ic = new InitialContextO;
Object obj = ic.lookup("ejb/oldBar")
;
OldBarHome OldBarHome
=
(OldBarHome) PortableRemoteObject.narrow(obj,
OldBarHome.class)
;
OldBar oldBar = oldBarHome.createO;
C. @EJB private OldBarHome OldBarHome;
public void fooQ
{
try
{
OldBar oldBar = oldBarHome.createQ;
D. public void fooQ
{
try
{
InitialContext ic = new InitialContextO;
OldBarHome OldBarHome
=
(OldBarHome) ic.lookup("ejb/oldBar")
;
OldBar oldBar = oldBarHome.createQ;
Answer: C
30.A developer implemented a Java class called Store. The class is annotated correctly to act as an entity.
The developer created a stateless session bean to create, lookup, and remove Store objects. This
session bean has a container-managed entity manager injected into field em and a removeStore method
with transaction attribute REQUIRED.
Given the following code :
32. public void re move St ore (St ore store) {
33. em.remove(store); 34.}
What is a possible reason that an HlegalArgumentException is thrown at Line 33 when the
removeStore method is called by a remote client?
A. Thepassedobject is NOT serializable.
B. Thepassed object is NOT found inthedatabase.
C. The passed object is NOT managed by the entity manager.
D. There is no active transaction to manage the database removal.
Answer: C
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Real IBM 000-M67 exam Q&As free download
1.Taylor, a paid subscriber to LotusLive Meetings, would like to host a meeting with a customer.
How would Taylor invite his customer (guests)?
A. Taylor can share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID or ask them to visit the LotusLive site and enter the meeting ID to join. His guest will simply need to enter their name before joining.
B. Taylor customer could not participate in the meeting since they are guests. He would have to record the meeting and send a link to the video recording.
C. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID, but when the customer click on the link, they will be prompted to register. Once registered, they can then participate in the meeting.
D. Taylor would have to pay an additional cost for his guest to get registered. Once registration is complete, they could join the meeting by visiting LotusLive site, authenticating with their credentials and
entering the meeting ID to join.
Answer: A
2.Which platform(s) can a customer run LotusLive on.?
A. Windows only
B. Windows and Linux
C. Windows, Linux and Mac
D. LotusLive does not run on a platform because it has its own operating system.
Answer: C
3.Tags are a very popular way of searching the content. Bob has emails related to XYZ customer.
How can he tag the emails and use this capability to search it later with LotusLive iNotes?
A. Bob can tag all incoming and outgoing email related to XYZ customer and sort his inbox via tag at a later time.
B. Bob can right-click on all the emails related to XYZ customer and choose the tag option to find these emails later in XYZ folder.
C. Tagging email and Tag Searching is not available in LotusLive iNotes.
D. Bob can navigate to iNotes mail, select the tag words, select the related emails and create a rule which can be used to search at a later time.
Answer: C
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How would Taylor invite his customer (guests)?
A. Taylor can share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID or ask them to visit the LotusLive site and enter the meeting ID to join. His guest will simply need to enter their name before joining.
B. Taylor customer could not participate in the meeting since they are guests. He would have to record the meeting and send a link to the video recording.
C. Taylor could share his meeting URL containing the meeting ID, but when the customer click on the link, they will be prompted to register. Once registered, they can then participate in the meeting.
D. Taylor would have to pay an additional cost for his guest to get registered. Once registration is complete, they could join the meeting by visiting LotusLive site, authenticating with their credentials and
entering the meeting ID to join.
Answer: A
2.Which platform(s) can a customer run LotusLive on.?
A. Windows only
B. Windows and Linux
C. Windows, Linux and Mac
D. LotusLive does not run on a platform because it has its own operating system.
Answer: C
3.Tags are a very popular way of searching the content. Bob has emails related to XYZ customer.
How can he tag the emails and use this capability to search it later with LotusLive iNotes?
A. Bob can tag all incoming and outgoing email related to XYZ customer and sort his inbox via tag at a later time.
B. Bob can right-click on all the emails related to XYZ customer and choose the tag option to find these emails later in XYZ folder.
C. Tagging email and Tag Searching is not available in LotusLive iNotes.
D. Bob can navigate to iNotes mail, select the tag words, select the related emails and create a rule which can be used to search at a later time.
Answer: C
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Real IBM 000-754 exam Q&As free download
1.A customer is upgrading their POS application. The new application will store all data and configurations on the store server, which has redundant disks. The customer is concerned about using disk space wisely and would like a plan that has a short recovery period. Which backup plan is most appropriate for this customer?
A. perform a nightly backup of all terminals to be stored on the store server
B. perform a nightly backup of the store server to be stored on an external backup drive
C. perform a weekly backup of all terminals to be stored on the terminal's internal hard drive
D. perform a weekly backup of the store server to be stored on the server's internal hard drive
Answer: B
2.A proposal includes the 4610 1NR printer that is connected via powered USB. What are two benefits of the proposed solution.? (Choose two.)
A. The printer provides a document insert station.
B. The printer is seen as an RS-232 device in Windows.
C. The printer has sensors that can report on the status of its components.
D. The printer can be driven by the application through direct communication.
E. The printer can be driven by the application through a Native Windows Driver.
Answer: C,E
3.A customer reports that the touch panel on their IBM AnyPlace Kiosk is no longer working. Which step should be taken to determine if the issue is hardware related?
A. test the touch panel on a SurePOS 300 system
B. install the latest version of BIOS and reset the default settings
C. test the functionality of the touch panel when in the BIOS Setup Utility
D. ensure that the latest version of touch drivers are installed on the system
Answer: C
4.A customer is interested in the hardware system information that can be provided by RMA. When setting up the lab environment, which component is required on the POS terminal to obtain this information?
A. IBM Director
B. IBM UPOS driver
C. USB filter driver
D. IBM POS sensor driver
Answer: D
5.A customer is upgrading their store system to include new POS terminal hardware and peripherals, new store servers, and a new POS application. What is the best time to begin the store migration project to reduce the impact on the store and allow time for system testing?
A. after the store opens the day of the migration
B. after the store closes the day of the migration
C. before the store opens the day of the migration
D. before the store closes the day of the migration
Answer: B
6.After a customer has completed configuration of a Microsoft Windows POSReady 2009 preloaded solution, and the POS is rebooted, Microsoft Windows prompts for the Administrator password to log on.
How should the technical specialist assist the customer with obtaining this password?
A. advise the customer that the Administrator password is blank
B. advise the customer to use the system serial number as the Administrator password
C. provide the customer with the default password ('password'), which is the same for all systems
D. refer the customer to the README file on the system hard drive for the password for that system
Answer: D
7.A customer wants to upgrade the operating system on their existing POS terminal hardware. What is the most important question to consider when determining if this upgrade is possible?
A. Will the existing POS terminal's hardware support the new operating system?
B. Will the new POS terminal's hardware support the existing operating system?
C. Will the new POS printer's connectivity support the existing operating system?
D. Will the existing POS printer's connectivity support the existing operating system?
Answer: A
8.Which tool can be used to duplicate the gold system?
A. IBM Director
B. Windows System Restore
C. Remote Management Agent
D. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: D
9.A customer is implementing a POS application that requires continuous connectivity to a host application at the corporate office. Which network feature can this customer implement at the store-level to ensure that connectivity to the corporate office from the store is available?
A. an in-store DNS server
B. a backup network switch
C. a backup instance of the host application
D. a dial or DSL backup for the store's WAN connection
Answer: D
10.The client team has proposed a POS system upgrade to a customer. This upgrade includes migrating the customer from a standard LCD display to a 4820 SurePoint touchscreen which the customer wants to use with their existing POS application. Which factor is most important for the customer to consider when reviewing this proposed upgrade?
A. How will the 4820 SurePoint display be mounted?
B. What is the screen size of the 4820 SurePoint display?
C. Was the existing POS application designed for touch operation?
D. What is the touch technology used by the 4820 SurePoint display?
Answer: C
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A. perform a nightly backup of all terminals to be stored on the store server
B. perform a nightly backup of the store server to be stored on an external backup drive
C. perform a weekly backup of all terminals to be stored on the terminal's internal hard drive
D. perform a weekly backup of the store server to be stored on the server's internal hard drive
Answer: B
2.A proposal includes the 4610 1NR printer that is connected via powered USB. What are two benefits of the proposed solution.? (Choose two.)
A. The printer provides a document insert station.
B. The printer is seen as an RS-232 device in Windows.
C. The printer has sensors that can report on the status of its components.
D. The printer can be driven by the application through direct communication.
E. The printer can be driven by the application through a Native Windows Driver.
Answer: C,E
3.A customer reports that the touch panel on their IBM AnyPlace Kiosk is no longer working. Which step should be taken to determine if the issue is hardware related?
A. test the touch panel on a SurePOS 300 system
B. install the latest version of BIOS and reset the default settings
C. test the functionality of the touch panel when in the BIOS Setup Utility
D. ensure that the latest version of touch drivers are installed on the system
Answer: C
4.A customer is interested in the hardware system information that can be provided by RMA. When setting up the lab environment, which component is required on the POS terminal to obtain this information?
A. IBM Director
B. IBM UPOS driver
C. USB filter driver
D. IBM POS sensor driver
Answer: D
5.A customer is upgrading their store system to include new POS terminal hardware and peripherals, new store servers, and a new POS application. What is the best time to begin the store migration project to reduce the impact on the store and allow time for system testing?
A. after the store opens the day of the migration
B. after the store closes the day of the migration
C. before the store opens the day of the migration
D. before the store closes the day of the migration
Answer: B
6.After a customer has completed configuration of a Microsoft Windows POSReady 2009 preloaded solution, and the POS is rebooted, Microsoft Windows prompts for the Administrator password to log on.
How should the technical specialist assist the customer with obtaining this password?
A. advise the customer that the Administrator password is blank
B. advise the customer to use the system serial number as the Administrator password
C. provide the customer with the default password ('password'), which is the same for all systems
D. refer the customer to the README file on the system hard drive for the password for that system
Answer: D
7.A customer wants to upgrade the operating system on their existing POS terminal hardware. What is the most important question to consider when determining if this upgrade is possible?
A. Will the existing POS terminal's hardware support the new operating system?
B. Will the new POS terminal's hardware support the existing operating system?
C. Will the new POS printer's connectivity support the existing operating system?
D. Will the existing POS printer's connectivity support the existing operating system?
Answer: A
8.Which tool can be used to duplicate the gold system?
A. IBM Director
B. Windows System Restore
C. Remote Management Agent
D. Tivoli Provisioning Manager
Answer: D
9.A customer is implementing a POS application that requires continuous connectivity to a host application at the corporate office. Which network feature can this customer implement at the store-level to ensure that connectivity to the corporate office from the store is available?
A. an in-store DNS server
B. a backup network switch
C. a backup instance of the host application
D. a dial or DSL backup for the store's WAN connection
Answer: D
10.The client team has proposed a POS system upgrade to a customer. This upgrade includes migrating the customer from a standard LCD display to a 4820 SurePoint touchscreen which the customer wants to use with their existing POS application. Which factor is most important for the customer to consider when reviewing this proposed upgrade?
A. How will the 4820 SurePoint display be mounted?
B. What is the screen size of the 4820 SurePoint display?
C. Was the existing POS application designed for touch operation?
D. What is the touch technology used by the 4820 SurePoint display?
Answer: C
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Real IBM 000-612 exam Q&As free download
1.Workload Manager (WLM) manages how many concurrent stored procedures can run in an address space and the number of concurrent stored procedures in an address space cannot exceed the value of the NUMTCB parameter. Which statement about the value of NUMTCB is correct?
A. NUMTCB parameter must be set to 1 for Java stored procedures.
B. NUMTCB parameter must be set to 1 for REXX stored procedures.
C. NUMTCB parameter can be a value greater than 1 for native SQL stored procedures.
D. NUMTCB parameter can be a value greater than 1 when a stored procedure invokes DB2 utilities.
Answer: B
2.If a single row of the PLAN_TABLE has a 'Y' value in more than one of the sort composite columns,what is indicated.?
A. The next sort step will perform two sorts.
B. There are multiple sorts in the plan step.
C. One sort in the plan step will accomplish two tasks.
D. Two sorts are performed on the new table of a star join.
Answer: C
3.What IBM provided stored procedure will access DB2 real time statistics tables?
A. DSNAEXP
B. DSNAIMS
C. DSNACCOX
D. DSNLEUSR
Answer: C
4.The EXPLAIN STMTCACHE ALL statement provides information about SQL tuning. Which information is part of the DSN_STATEMENT_CACHE_TABLE?
A. Filter factor information.
B. Stage 1 and stage 2 information.
C. Number of columns used in an index.
D. Number of times an SQL statement is executed.
Answer: D
5.Which two of the following DB2 performance features will ignore clustering in favor of faster insert performance? (Choose two.)
A. Append
B. Inline LOBs
C. Member cluster
D. Volatile table
E. Include columns
Answer: A,C
6.When is a merge scan join a well performing access path?
A. When the number of qualifying rows of the inner and outer table are both large.
B. When the query references at least two dimensions and the STARJOIN subsystem parameter is 1.
C. When the number of rows in the outer table is small and the number of pages accessed in the inner table is small.
D. When the matching columns of the inner table are in a non-clustering index or the outer table has duplicate qualifying rows.
Answer: A
7.What trace class will show deadlock information?
A. Audit class 3.
B. Statistic class 3.
C. Accounting class 1.
D. Performance class 8.
Answer: B
8.Which DSNZPARM will define the number of RID Blocks in the RID Pool?
A. NUMTCB
B. MAXRBLK
C. CONDBAT
D. URLGWTH
Answer: B
9.When DB2 detects at runtime requiring a large amount of data to be read, which prefetch method is used more often?
A. List prefetch
B. Dynamic prefetch
C. Sequential prefetch
D. Skip sequential prefetch
Answer: B
10.In order to retain an access path across a rebind which of the following commands could be used?
A. BIND PLAN
B. REBIND PACKAGE(PK1) REOPT(ONCE)
C. BIND PACKAGE (PK1) EXPLAIN(YES)
D. REBIND PACKAGE (PK1) PLANMGMT(BASIC)
Answer: D
11.The available window to reorganize table spaces is being reduced. What data can provide information to allow for a priority list of candidate table spaces for reorganization based on recent activity with no recent RUNSTATS execution?
A. SYSIBM.SYSCOPY
B. SYSIBM.SYSTABLES
C. SYSIBM.SYSINDEXES
D. SYSIBM.SYSTABLESPACESTATS
Answer: D
12.Which DB2 trace is utilized to capture overall subsystem virtual memory consumption?
A. The DB2 audit trace.
B. The DB2 statistics trace.
C. The DB2 connection trace.
D. The DB2 accounting trace.
Answer: B
13.What is a consideration when specifying DATA CAPTURE CHANGES?
A. Can be specified for capturing changes to an XML object.
B. To minimize logging, specify NOT LOGGED when DATA CAPTURE CHANGES is specified.
C. REFRESH TABLE statement is not allowed with a table defined with DATA CAPTURE CHANGES.
D. You cannot turn on DATA CAPTURE CHANGES if the table space is in advisory REORG-pending.
Answer: D
14.In using plan stability, what storage space requirement should be of carefully monitored?
A. MINSTOR
B. DSNDB07
C. DSNDB01.SPT01
D. DSN_STATEMNT_TABLE
Answer: C
15.What two parameters allow DB2 to keep a copy of a dynamically prepared statement in the cache?
A. KEEPDYNAMIC(YES) and CACHEDYN=YES
B. KEEPDYNAMIC(NO) and CACHEDYN=NO
C. KEEPDYNAMIC(NO) and REOPT(ALWAYS)
D. KEEPDYNAMIC(YES) and REOPT(ALWAYS)
Answer: A
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A. NUMTCB parameter must be set to 1 for Java stored procedures.
B. NUMTCB parameter must be set to 1 for REXX stored procedures.
C. NUMTCB parameter can be a value greater than 1 for native SQL stored procedures.
D. NUMTCB parameter can be a value greater than 1 when a stored procedure invokes DB2 utilities.
Answer: B
2.If a single row of the PLAN_TABLE has a 'Y' value in more than one of the sort composite columns,what is indicated.?
A. The next sort step will perform two sorts.
B. There are multiple sorts in the plan step.
C. One sort in the plan step will accomplish two tasks.
D. Two sorts are performed on the new table of a star join.
Answer: C
3.What IBM provided stored procedure will access DB2 real time statistics tables?
A. DSNAEXP
B. DSNAIMS
C. DSNACCOX
D. DSNLEUSR
Answer: C
4.The EXPLAIN STMTCACHE ALL statement provides information about SQL tuning. Which information is part of the DSN_STATEMENT_CACHE_TABLE?
A. Filter factor information.
B. Stage 1 and stage 2 information.
C. Number of columns used in an index.
D. Number of times an SQL statement is executed.
Answer: D
5.Which two of the following DB2 performance features will ignore clustering in favor of faster insert performance? (Choose two.)
A. Append
B. Inline LOBs
C. Member cluster
D. Volatile table
E. Include columns
Answer: A,C
6.When is a merge scan join a well performing access path?
A. When the number of qualifying rows of the inner and outer table are both large.
B. When the query references at least two dimensions and the STARJOIN subsystem parameter is 1.
C. When the number of rows in the outer table is small and the number of pages accessed in the inner table is small.
D. When the matching columns of the inner table are in a non-clustering index or the outer table has duplicate qualifying rows.
Answer: A
7.What trace class will show deadlock information?
A. Audit class 3.
B. Statistic class 3.
C. Accounting class 1.
D. Performance class 8.
Answer: B
8.Which DSNZPARM will define the number of RID Blocks in the RID Pool?
A. NUMTCB
B. MAXRBLK
C. CONDBAT
D. URLGWTH
Answer: B
9.When DB2 detects at runtime requiring a large amount of data to be read, which prefetch method is used more often?
A. List prefetch
B. Dynamic prefetch
C. Sequential prefetch
D. Skip sequential prefetch
Answer: B
10.In order to retain an access path across a rebind which of the following commands could be used?
A. BIND PLAN
B. REBIND PACKAGE(PK1) REOPT(ONCE)
C. BIND PACKAGE (PK1) EXPLAIN(YES)
D. REBIND PACKAGE (PK1) PLANMGMT(BASIC)
Answer: D
11.The available window to reorganize table spaces is being reduced. What data can provide information to allow for a priority list of candidate table spaces for reorganization based on recent activity with no recent RUNSTATS execution?
A. SYSIBM.SYSCOPY
B. SYSIBM.SYSTABLES
C. SYSIBM.SYSINDEXES
D. SYSIBM.SYSTABLESPACESTATS
Answer: D
12.Which DB2 trace is utilized to capture overall subsystem virtual memory consumption?
A. The DB2 audit trace.
B. The DB2 statistics trace.
C. The DB2 connection trace.
D. The DB2 accounting trace.
Answer: B
13.What is a consideration when specifying DATA CAPTURE CHANGES?
A. Can be specified for capturing changes to an XML object.
B. To minimize logging, specify NOT LOGGED when DATA CAPTURE CHANGES is specified.
C. REFRESH TABLE statement is not allowed with a table defined with DATA CAPTURE CHANGES.
D. You cannot turn on DATA CAPTURE CHANGES if the table space is in advisory REORG-pending.
Answer: D
14.In using plan stability, what storage space requirement should be of carefully monitored?
A. MINSTOR
B. DSNDB07
C. DSNDB01.SPT01
D. DSN_STATEMNT_TABLE
Answer: C
15.What two parameters allow DB2 to keep a copy of a dynamically prepared statement in the cache?
A. KEEPDYNAMIC(YES) and CACHEDYN=YES
B. KEEPDYNAMIC(NO) and CACHEDYN=NO
C. KEEPDYNAMIC(NO) and REOPT(ALWAYS)
D. KEEPDYNAMIC(YES) and REOPT(ALWAYS)
Answer: A
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Real IBM 000-608 exam Q&As free download
1.A deployment professional is installing an application which uses business processes in a clustered WebSphere Process Server environment. The Business Process Choreographer (BPC) container has previously been configured. During which phase of the installation is the application validated?
A. During the installation phase on the node agent.
B. During the installation phase on the deployment manager.
C. During the configuration phase on the application server.
D. During the application start phase on the application server.
Answer: B
2.In a company all the applications deployed in a WebSphere Process Server network deployment environment extensively leverage asynchronous messaging with JMS bindings. There is a requirement to resubmit the messages in case of infrastructure failures or planned shutdown.
What is the suggested message reliability level that could be proposed in this situation.?
A. Assured persistent
B. Reliable persistent
C. Reliable non-persistent
D. Best effort non-persistent
Answer: A
3.WebSphere Process Server (WPS) V7.0 introduces a new Service Component Architecture (SCA) container. Which of the following changes in the architecture result in improved performance?
A. There is no dependency for an EJB container for WPS V7.0 applications.
B. The new Business Object Runtime Framework replaces the old Business Object framework.
C. Code generation, validation, and packaging is fully covered during the application deployment.
D. Applications for WPS V6.2 and previous releases are automatically migrated to V7.0 during
deployment.
Answer: A
4.A clustered WebSphere Process Server (WPS) production environment consists of a remote messaging cluster with multiple active messaging engines (ME) configured for high throughput. During the testing of
an application which uses MQ JMS export for in-take of messages, the integration developer has found out that the messages were arriving on the backend EIS application at random order which was not desirable. This was not the observed behavior when the application was tested in the Universal Test Environment (UTE) within WebSphere Integration Developer (WID).
Source Application --------> MQ JMS Export ----------> EIS Application
What is the combination of actions to reconfigure the resources in the production environment in order to achieve the expected behavior?
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 3
Answer: A
5.An application which uses Business Processes extensively has found that there is an excessive number of messages being sent to the hold queue. The deployment professional is asked to modify the configuration of the Business Process Choreographer (BPC) settings for that server in an effort to reduce the amount of messages in the hold queue. Which value should be changed to improve this situation?
A. Retry limit
B. Process limit
C. Hold queue timeout
D. Retention queue message limit
Answer: A
6.A company has deployed many applications accessing the same backend services. Many of the applications share the same WSDL and Business Objects. New applications to be deployed in the near future will use updated backend service definitions. In addition, the memory usage has dramatically increased over the last deployments and may prevent new application deployments on the same environment. Which of the following recommendations would a deployment professional MOST likely provide?
A. The development team must review the applications and provide a single module for the backend access. Shared WSDL and Business Objects
can be deployed with the new application.
B. The development team should identify common artifacts used by the application. A shared library can be deployed independently and
referenced by the applications.
C. The environment must be prepared for new applications by increasing the heap size of the servers or new servers must be added to the
environment to share the workload.
D. The system administrator can deploy new applications including all libraries needed. During the deployment the libraries of other applications with the needed WSDL and Business Objects can be referenced as a shared library.
Answer: B
7.A deployment professional is asked to investigate a failure in a business process. However, the specific process instance being investigated is still running. After close examination, one of the activities of the process instance is stopped. What action should the deployment professional take to resolve this issue so that the current process navigation can continue?
A. Change Continue On Error setting of the process template to no but make sure this setting is overridden at the activity scope to a value of yes.
B. Change Continue On Error setting of the process template to yes and ensure this setting is inherited at the activity scope.
C. Examine the variables of the stopped activity and update the values as necessary, and save the settings.
D. Set the expiration for the stopped activity so that after a specified interval the activity terminates and the process can continue.
Answer: C
8.A deployment professional is performing a review of the audit and logging practices being used. One ofthe items under review is the current level of logging configured for the Human Task Manager. The site
database administrator requires that any changes made which affect the amount and type of data being stored to the database must be reviewed and approved prior to implementation. Which of the following log
settings would impact the data stored to the database?
A. Audit logging
B. Failed event logging
C. Task history logging
D. Common Event Infrastructure (CEI) logging
Answer: A
9.A retail company has the requirement to make frequent changes to a long running MyProcessDiscount business process as newer versions of that process are introduced due to changing business needs. What approach should a deployment professional adopt to meet this requirement?
A. Stop the older version of the MyProcessDiscount process template from the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC), install the application containing the newer version of the business process template.
B. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, select all the running instances with name MyProcessDiscount business process, then choose the Migrate option to migrate all instances to the currently valid version of the business process template.
C. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, if you see any running instances of older version of MyProcessDiscount process template, wait till all the instances of that version of the template are completed, then remove the older version of the business process template and install the newer version of the business process template.
D. Install the application containing the newer version of MyProcessDiscount process template, then
using the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, monitor the state of the running process instances and, when execution is in the appropriate place in the flow of the business process, select the business
process instances based on the older template only to migrate to the newer version.
Answer: D
10.A deployment professional is installing a new business process application. The deployment professional is using a script installation with the installInteractive option so that they are prompted for
values during the installation process. What is the reason for this installation approach?
A. The interactive configuration script provides an audit log of the installation for revision control purposes.
B. Installation with the interactive configuration script is faster than using the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC).
C. Some configuration values must be specified which are not available using the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) wizard interface.
D. When configuring with an interactive script, it is not necessary to specify information about the application required data sources.
Answer: C
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A. During the installation phase on the node agent.
B. During the installation phase on the deployment manager.
C. During the configuration phase on the application server.
D. During the application start phase on the application server.
Answer: B
2.In a company all the applications deployed in a WebSphere Process Server network deployment environment extensively leverage asynchronous messaging with JMS bindings. There is a requirement to resubmit the messages in case of infrastructure failures or planned shutdown.
What is the suggested message reliability level that could be proposed in this situation.?
A. Assured persistent
B. Reliable persistent
C. Reliable non-persistent
D. Best effort non-persistent
Answer: A
3.WebSphere Process Server (WPS) V7.0 introduces a new Service Component Architecture (SCA) container. Which of the following changes in the architecture result in improved performance?
A. There is no dependency for an EJB container for WPS V7.0 applications.
B. The new Business Object Runtime Framework replaces the old Business Object framework.
C. Code generation, validation, and packaging is fully covered during the application deployment.
D. Applications for WPS V6.2 and previous releases are automatically migrated to V7.0 during
deployment.
Answer: A
4.A clustered WebSphere Process Server (WPS) production environment consists of a remote messaging cluster with multiple active messaging engines (ME) configured for high throughput. During the testing of
an application which uses MQ JMS export for in-take of messages, the integration developer has found out that the messages were arriving on the backend EIS application at random order which was not desirable. This was not the observed behavior when the application was tested in the Universal Test Environment (UTE) within WebSphere Integration Developer (WID).
Source Application --------> MQ JMS Export ----------> EIS Application
What is the combination of actions to reconfigure the resources in the production environment in order to achieve the expected behavior?
A. 1, 2
B. 1, 3
C. 1, 4
D. 2, 3
Answer: A
5.An application which uses Business Processes extensively has found that there is an excessive number of messages being sent to the hold queue. The deployment professional is asked to modify the configuration of the Business Process Choreographer (BPC) settings for that server in an effort to reduce the amount of messages in the hold queue. Which value should be changed to improve this situation?
A. Retry limit
B. Process limit
C. Hold queue timeout
D. Retention queue message limit
Answer: A
6.A company has deployed many applications accessing the same backend services. Many of the applications share the same WSDL and Business Objects. New applications to be deployed in the near future will use updated backend service definitions. In addition, the memory usage has dramatically increased over the last deployments and may prevent new application deployments on the same environment. Which of the following recommendations would a deployment professional MOST likely provide?
A. The development team must review the applications and provide a single module for the backend access. Shared WSDL and Business Objects
can be deployed with the new application.
B. The development team should identify common artifacts used by the application. A shared library can be deployed independently and
referenced by the applications.
C. The environment must be prepared for new applications by increasing the heap size of the servers or new servers must be added to the
environment to share the workload.
D. The system administrator can deploy new applications including all libraries needed. During the deployment the libraries of other applications with the needed WSDL and Business Objects can be referenced as a shared library.
Answer: B
7.A deployment professional is asked to investigate a failure in a business process. However, the specific process instance being investigated is still running. After close examination, one of the activities of the process instance is stopped. What action should the deployment professional take to resolve this issue so that the current process navigation can continue?
A. Change Continue On Error setting of the process template to no but make sure this setting is overridden at the activity scope to a value of yes.
B. Change Continue On Error setting of the process template to yes and ensure this setting is inherited at the activity scope.
C. Examine the variables of the stopped activity and update the values as necessary, and save the settings.
D. Set the expiration for the stopped activity so that after a specified interval the activity terminates and the process can continue.
Answer: C
8.A deployment professional is performing a review of the audit and logging practices being used. One ofthe items under review is the current level of logging configured for the Human Task Manager. The site
database administrator requires that any changes made which affect the amount and type of data being stored to the database must be reviewed and approved prior to implementation. Which of the following log
settings would impact the data stored to the database?
A. Audit logging
B. Failed event logging
C. Task history logging
D. Common Event Infrastructure (CEI) logging
Answer: A
9.A retail company has the requirement to make frequent changes to a long running MyProcessDiscount business process as newer versions of that process are introduced due to changing business needs. What approach should a deployment professional adopt to meet this requirement?
A. Stop the older version of the MyProcessDiscount process template from the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC), install the application containing the newer version of the business process template.
B. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, select all the running instances with name MyProcessDiscount business process, then choose the Migrate option to migrate all instances to the currently valid version of the business process template.
C. Use the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, if you see any running instances of older version of MyProcessDiscount process template, wait till all the instances of that version of the template are completed, then remove the older version of the business process template and install the newer version of the business process template.
D. Install the application containing the newer version of MyProcessDiscount process template, then
using the Business Process Choreographer Explorer, monitor the state of the running process instances and, when execution is in the appropriate place in the flow of the business process, select the business
process instances based on the older template only to migrate to the newer version.
Answer: D
10.A deployment professional is installing a new business process application. The deployment professional is using a script installation with the installInteractive option so that they are prompted for
values during the installation process. What is the reason for this installation approach?
A. The interactive configuration script provides an audit log of the installation for revision control purposes.
B. Installation with the interactive configuration script is faster than using the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC).
C. Some configuration values must be specified which are not available using the Integrated Solutions Console (ISC) wizard interface.
D. When configuring with an interactive script, it is not necessary to specify information about the application required data sources.
Answer: C
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Real IBM 000-602 exam Q&As free download
1.A client is considering a zBX for application serving. Which of the following issues need to be discussed
during implementation planning for the zBX with the client?
A. Level of Windows running on zBX
B. Toleration PTFs for z/OS running on the zBX
C. Maintenance level of zVM
D. Levels of Linux on System x, and AIX on zBX
Answer: D
2.A customer is willing to buy one z196 with four zBX. The manager of the mainframe department is
concerned about the acoustical noise from the zBX. What action should be done in order to address this
concern.?
A. Order Rear Door Heat eXchanger to minimize BladeCenter noise.
B. IBM Site and Facilities Services can provide sound attenuation panels for data center walls and
ceilings
C. Order IBM acoustic door
D. Order 3rd party vendor acoustic attenuation enclosures for BladeCenter
Answer: C
3.A z800 customer has been acquired by a larger company. The parent company is a z196 customer. The
parent company CIO has told the z800 staff to upgrade from z/OS 1.4 to a supported z/OS version on a
z10 BC. The CIO understands there is no simple supported migration path. The z800 staff plans to
present the parent company CIO four migration options. Which of the following plans will bring them to a
supported environment?
A. Research PSP buckets to ensure all required service is applied to z/OS 1.4
B. Purchase IBM Lifecycle Extension for z/OS 1.7 and migrate to z/OS 1.7
C. Order the most current version of z/OS and migrate to that version
D. Install the z10 with z/VM and run z/OS 1.4 as a z/VM Guest
Answer: C
4.A customer with a System z Server and DS8000 storage subsystems will be creating a new remote data
center for disaster recovery (DR). The data centers are 613 kilometers (381 miles) apart. The data
migration and production cutover must be accomplished with minimal disruption.
Which of the following technologies best meets these requirements?
A. Global Mirror
B. SVC
C. PPRC
D. Flash Copy
Answer: A
5.A customer has several System z servers and is considering moving to zEnterprise. They ask if all their
installed systems can be upgraded directly to zEnterprise. Which of the following IBM z Servers will not
upgrade directly to zEnterprise?
A. z10 EC
B. z9 EC
C. z10 BC
D. z10 IFL only
Answer: D
6.A customer is planning for their first z196. At what stage should pre-sale TDA be performed?
A. Prior to point of ordering
B. Prior to proposal
C. Prior to initial solution design meeting
D. Prior to delivery
Answer: B
7.A customer is considering consolidating 50 existing Linux x86 servers to Linux on System z.
Which of the following is the best way to create a detailed consolidated sizing for these 50
servers?
A. Collect performance and workload data for CPU busy on the current servers and translate RPE2s into
MIPS, then input the results into
eConfig for a sizing
B. Collect performance data and use it for a Fit for Purpose study to create a sizing
C. Collect performance and workload data from existing servers and share it with IT Architects and
Techline to create a sizing.
D. Use the IBM Workload Estimator (IWE) on the Internet to create the detailed consolidated sizing.
Answer: C
8.In a customer project status meeting, a new requirement surfaces. This requirement may result in
substantially more storage being needed than originally specified. Which of the following addresses this
change?
A. Provide a quotation for more disk
B. Recommend the client postpones the requirement
C. Propose IBM Storage Cloud Services
D. Process a project change-order
Answer: D
9.A customer is installing their first zBX to analyze the fit for a large implementation later. The Operations
Director is concerned about what device would service the blade, specifically for replacing microcode or
recognizing hardware failure. Which of the following devices performs these functions for the zBX?
A. Any HMC attached to the z196
B. Any HMC attached to the System z ensemble that owns the blade
C. The HMC currently running Unified Resource Manager
D. The HMC attached to the System z node that owns the blade
Answer: C
10.The System z specialist is talking to the IT Manager of a large enterprise who asks, what are the
benefits of Server Virtualization? Which of the following is a benefit of Server Virtualization on System z
A. Hipersocket networking reduces physical networking requirements between virtual servers
B. Equal access to all resources and data for all applications
C. Will always reduce cost of IT
D. NSF allows data be shared between UNIX, Windows and System z Servers
Answer: A
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during implementation planning for the zBX with the client?
A. Level of Windows running on zBX
B. Toleration PTFs for z/OS running on the zBX
C. Maintenance level of zVM
D. Levels of Linux on System x, and AIX on zBX
Answer: D
2.A customer is willing to buy one z196 with four zBX. The manager of the mainframe department is
concerned about the acoustical noise from the zBX. What action should be done in order to address this
concern.?
A. Order Rear Door Heat eXchanger to minimize BladeCenter noise.
B. IBM Site and Facilities Services can provide sound attenuation panels for data center walls and
ceilings
C. Order IBM acoustic door
D. Order 3rd party vendor acoustic attenuation enclosures for BladeCenter
Answer: C
3.A z800 customer has been acquired by a larger company. The parent company is a z196 customer. The
parent company CIO has told the z800 staff to upgrade from z/OS 1.4 to a supported z/OS version on a
z10 BC. The CIO understands there is no simple supported migration path. The z800 staff plans to
present the parent company CIO four migration options. Which of the following plans will bring them to a
supported environment?
A. Research PSP buckets to ensure all required service is applied to z/OS 1.4
B. Purchase IBM Lifecycle Extension for z/OS 1.7 and migrate to z/OS 1.7
C. Order the most current version of z/OS and migrate to that version
D. Install the z10 with z/VM and run z/OS 1.4 as a z/VM Guest
Answer: C
4.A customer with a System z Server and DS8000 storage subsystems will be creating a new remote data
center for disaster recovery (DR). The data centers are 613 kilometers (381 miles) apart. The data
migration and production cutover must be accomplished with minimal disruption.
Which of the following technologies best meets these requirements?
A. Global Mirror
B. SVC
C. PPRC
D. Flash Copy
Answer: A
5.A customer has several System z servers and is considering moving to zEnterprise. They ask if all their
installed systems can be upgraded directly to zEnterprise. Which of the following IBM z Servers will not
upgrade directly to zEnterprise?
A. z10 EC
B. z9 EC
C. z10 BC
D. z10 IFL only
Answer: D
6.A customer is planning for their first z196. At what stage should pre-sale TDA be performed?
A. Prior to point of ordering
B. Prior to proposal
C. Prior to initial solution design meeting
D. Prior to delivery
Answer: B
7.A customer is considering consolidating 50 existing Linux x86 servers to Linux on System z.
Which of the following is the best way to create a detailed consolidated sizing for these 50
servers?
A. Collect performance and workload data for CPU busy on the current servers and translate RPE2s into
MIPS, then input the results into
eConfig for a sizing
B. Collect performance data and use it for a Fit for Purpose study to create a sizing
C. Collect performance and workload data from existing servers and share it with IT Architects and
Techline to create a sizing.
D. Use the IBM Workload Estimator (IWE) on the Internet to create the detailed consolidated sizing.
Answer: C
8.In a customer project status meeting, a new requirement surfaces. This requirement may result in
substantially more storage being needed than originally specified. Which of the following addresses this
change?
A. Provide a quotation for more disk
B. Recommend the client postpones the requirement
C. Propose IBM Storage Cloud Services
D. Process a project change-order
Answer: D
9.A customer is installing their first zBX to analyze the fit for a large implementation later. The Operations
Director is concerned about what device would service the blade, specifically for replacing microcode or
recognizing hardware failure. Which of the following devices performs these functions for the zBX?
A. Any HMC attached to the z196
B. Any HMC attached to the System z ensemble that owns the blade
C. The HMC currently running Unified Resource Manager
D. The HMC attached to the System z node that owns the blade
Answer: C
10.The System z specialist is talking to the IT Manager of a large enterprise who asks, what are the
benefits of Server Virtualization? Which of the following is a benefit of Server Virtualization on System z
A. Hipersocket networking reduces physical networking requirements between virtual servers
B. Equal access to all resources and data for all applications
C. Will always reduce cost of IT
D. NSF allows data be shared between UNIX, Windows and System z Servers
Answer: A
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1.Which CREATE DATABASE attributes are required?
A. The database name.
B. The database name and the redo log file name.
C. The database name and the table space name.
D. The database name and the temporary table space name.
Answer: A
2.Which statement is true for database users and groups.?
A. All users must belong to admin group.
B. Creation of users and groups is not allowed.
C. Users and groups are local and tied to a particular database.
D. Users and groups are global and not tied to a particular database.
Answer: D
3.What is the maximum number of columns you can choose as organizing keys for clustered base table?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C
4.Which two characteristics describe the materialized view on TwinFin. (Choose two.)
A. Materialized views can contain aggregates.
B. Materialized views can contain a HAVING clause.
C. Materialized views can contain a WHERE clause.
D. Materialized views can contain an ORDER BY clause.
E. Materialized views can reference only one base table in the FROM clause.
Answer: D,E
5.Which statement is true regarding any database user?
A. The user has a table space defined.
B. The user can be assigned to more than one group.
C. The user must have a corresponding host account.
D. The user can be removed from the default PUBLIC group.
Answer: B
6 .When working with sequences, which of the following statements will always be true?
A. One-up numbers are generated.
B. Integers (whole numbers) are generated.
C. The first value generated is the number 1.
D. The sequence number assigned will be unique across all tables and databases.
Answer: B
7.When are zonemaps initially created for a table?
A. nzbackup
B. nzreclaim
C. CREATE TABLE
D. ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAPS
Answer: C
8.Columns in a table may be zonemapped. How are those columns chosen?
A. They are automatically selected by the system.
B. They are based on the same columns as the table's distribution key.
C. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD INDEX(column_name) statement.
D. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAP(column_name) statement.
Answer: A
9.Which clause CANNOT be used with a CREATE VIEW statement?
A. SUM ()
B. GROUP BY
C. ORDER BY
D. OUTER JOIN
Answer: C
10.What is a characteristic of a column that is based on the TIMESTAMP datatype?
A. It includes a date portion.
B. It includes a timezone offset.
C. The value is reevaluated each time the row is selected.
D. The value is initially assigned when the row is first created.
Answer: A
11.When creating a table, you can specify a column constraint for each individual column of either "NULL"
or "NOT NULL". When column values are later evaluated within a query statement, which of these is true?
A. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
B. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
C. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
D. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
Answer: D
12.After performing a GROOM on a clustered base table, which statement is true?
A. The table is redistributed on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
B. The table is reorganized on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. The table is reorganized on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
D. The table is redistributed on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
Answer: B
13.Which two statistical data points are automatically updated when performing an INSERT on a table?
(Choose two.)
A. The number of rows in the table.
B. The column histogram statistics.
C. The number of NULLs in each column.
D. The number of unique values in each column.
E. The minimum and maximum column value information (excluding text columns).
Answer: A,E
14.Using a date column as a distribution key may distribute rows evenly across dataslices, why is this a
poor choice of a distribution key?
A. Queries on the table will invoke compression.
B. Queries on date range may involve processing skew.
C. Queries on date range will utilize only host processing.
D. Queries on the table will invoke compression on the date columns.
Answer: B
15.Why should you avoid using Boolean data types as a distribution key for a table ?
A. Table will not join.
B. Table will not broadcast.
C. Table is likely to be skewed.
D. Table is likely to be evenly spread across data slices.
Answer: C
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A. The database name.
B. The database name and the redo log file name.
C. The database name and the table space name.
D. The database name and the temporary table space name.
Answer: A
2.Which statement is true for database users and groups.?
A. All users must belong to admin group.
B. Creation of users and groups is not allowed.
C. Users and groups are local and tied to a particular database.
D. Users and groups are global and not tied to a particular database.
Answer: D
3.What is the maximum number of columns you can choose as organizing keys for clustered base table?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 4
D. 8
Answer: C
4.Which two characteristics describe the materialized view on TwinFin. (Choose two.)
A. Materialized views can contain aggregates.
B. Materialized views can contain a HAVING clause.
C. Materialized views can contain a WHERE clause.
D. Materialized views can contain an ORDER BY clause.
E. Materialized views can reference only one base table in the FROM clause.
Answer: D,E
5.Which statement is true regarding any database user?
A. The user has a table space defined.
B. The user can be assigned to more than one group.
C. The user must have a corresponding host account.
D. The user can be removed from the default PUBLIC group.
Answer: B
6 .When working with sequences, which of the following statements will always be true?
A. One-up numbers are generated.
B. Integers (whole numbers) are generated.
C. The first value generated is the number 1.
D. The sequence number assigned will be unique across all tables and databases.
Answer: B
7.When are zonemaps initially created for a table?
A. nzbackup
B. nzreclaim
C. CREATE TABLE
D. ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAPS
Answer: C
8.Columns in a table may be zonemapped. How are those columns chosen?
A. They are automatically selected by the system.
B. They are based on the same columns as the table's distribution key.
C. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD INDEX(column_name) statement.
D. They are added via the ALTER TABLE ADD ZONEMAP(column_name) statement.
Answer: A
9.Which clause CANNOT be used with a CREATE VIEW statement?
A. SUM ()
B. GROUP BY
C. ORDER BY
D. OUTER JOIN
Answer: C
10.What is a characteristic of a column that is based on the TIMESTAMP datatype?
A. It includes a date portion.
B. It includes a timezone offset.
C. The value is reevaluated each time the row is selected.
D. The value is initially assigned when the row is first created.
Answer: A
11.When creating a table, you can specify a column constraint for each individual column of either "NULL"
or "NOT NULL". When column values are later evaluated within a query statement, which of these is true?
A. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
B. 0 is equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
C. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is equal to null.
D. 0 is not equal to null, the empty string ( '' ) is not equal to null.
Answer: D
12.After performing a GROOM on a clustered base table, which statement is true?
A. The table is redistributed on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
B. The table is reorganized on the ORGANIZE ON clause.
C. The table is reorganized on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
D. The table is redistributed on the DISTRIBUTE ON clause.
Answer: B
13.Which two statistical data points are automatically updated when performing an INSERT on a table?
(Choose two.)
A. The number of rows in the table.
B. The column histogram statistics.
C. The number of NULLs in each column.
D. The number of unique values in each column.
E. The minimum and maximum column value information (excluding text columns).
Answer: A,E
14.Using a date column as a distribution key may distribute rows evenly across dataslices, why is this a
poor choice of a distribution key?
A. Queries on the table will invoke compression.
B. Queries on date range may involve processing skew.
C. Queries on date range will utilize only host processing.
D. Queries on the table will invoke compression on the date columns.
Answer: B
15.Why should you avoid using Boolean data types as a distribution key for a table ?
A. Table will not join.
B. Table will not broadcast.
C. Table is likely to be skewed.
D. Table is likely to be evenly spread across data slices.
Answer: C
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Real IBM 000-172 exam Q&As free download
1.Refer to the Exhibit.
Select the option that best describes the process in the diagram?
A. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body.
Once the doors are assembled, the tires and bumpers are fitted to the body of the car. Quality
inspection begins as soon as the tires are fitted to the car.
B. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires and the bumpers to the body of the car. When all the
above mentioned activities are completed, quality inspectors perform inspection.
C. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires. Once the doors are assembled, the bumpers are fitted to
the body of the car. When all the above mentioned activities are completed, quality inspectors
perform inspection.
D. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires. Once the doors are assembled, the bumpers are fitted to
the body of the car. Quality inspection begins as soon as the tires are fitted to the car.
Answer: C
2.A big automobile manufacturer is mapping their high level process in IBM BPM Blueprint. Select
the correct list of milestones that makes the most sense (consider both logical sequence of the
milestone, as well as the best practice naming convention). ?
A. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble the components; 3. Quality Inspection; 4. Ship the
car through a preferred vendor
B. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble components; 3. Perform rework if it fails quality
inspection; 4. Product Shipment
C. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble the components; 3. Perform rework if it fails
quality inspection; 4. Ship the car through a preferred vendor
D. 1. Procurement of Components; 2. Assembly of Components; 3. Quality Inspection; 4. ProductShipment
Answer: D
3.Based on IBM BPM Blueprint best practices, while documenting activity details, the Business
Owner role is generally:
A. the business Unit Manager who runs the business
B. the person who is accountable for that particular process
C. the person who has the highest level of understanding of the process
D. the BPM lead who is responsible for implementing business process management
Answer: B
4.Once the discovery map is done and the process diagram view is generated, any updates made in
the process diagram view must be verified and validated in the discovery map view.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
5."Escalations" are used in WebSphere Lombardi Edition modeling to:
A. automate processes by using non-human tasks
B. add a level of sophistication to the process model
C. improve the process by solving problematic tasks
D. ensure metrics relating to process cycle times are met
Answer: D
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Select the option that best describes the process in the diagram?
A. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body.
Once the doors are assembled, the tires and bumpers are fitted to the body of the car. Quality
inspection begins as soon as the tires are fitted to the car.
B. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires and the bumpers to the body of the car. When all the
above mentioned activities are completed, quality inspectors perform inspection.
C. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires. Once the doors are assembled, the bumpers are fitted to
the body of the car. When all the above mentioned activities are completed, quality inspectors
perform inspection.
D. Once the material handlers get the components to the assembly area, the assembly operators
start assembling the doors to the main body. At the same time, based on their availability, the
assembly operators can also fit the tires. Once the doors are assembled, the bumpers are fitted to
the body of the car. Quality inspection begins as soon as the tires are fitted to the car.
Answer: C
2.A big automobile manufacturer is mapping their high level process in IBM BPM Blueprint. Select
the correct list of milestones that makes the most sense (consider both logical sequence of the
milestone, as well as the best practice naming convention). ?
A. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble the components; 3. Quality Inspection; 4. Ship the
car through a preferred vendor
B. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble components; 3. Perform rework if it fails quality
inspection; 4. Product Shipment
C. 1. Procurement of components; 2. Assemble the components; 3. Perform rework if it fails
quality inspection; 4. Ship the car through a preferred vendor
D. 1. Procurement of Components; 2. Assembly of Components; 3. Quality Inspection; 4. ProductShipment
Answer: D
3.Based on IBM BPM Blueprint best practices, while documenting activity details, the Business
Owner role is generally:
A. the business Unit Manager who runs the business
B. the person who is accountable for that particular process
C. the person who has the highest level of understanding of the process
D. the BPM lead who is responsible for implementing business process management
Answer: B
4.Once the discovery map is done and the process diagram view is generated, any updates made in
the process diagram view must be verified and validated in the discovery map view.
A. TRUE
B. FALSE
Answer: B
5."Escalations" are used in WebSphere Lombardi Edition modeling to:
A. automate processes by using non-human tasks
B. add a level of sophistication to the process model
C. improve the process by solving problematic tasks
D. ensure metrics relating to process cycle times are met
Answer: D
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1.Which operation is valid when a user's identity is suspended given properly configured automatic
provisioning policies and roles in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1?
A. The user's accounts are suspended on managed targets.
B. The user's identity is suspended and the accounts are deleted on the managed target.
C. The user's accounts will be modified in order to grant access rights to managed targets.
D. The user's accounts are added to the suspended group on the Enterprise Directory Server.
Answer: A
2.Where does JavaScript defined with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (ITIM) execute.?
A. browser
B. database
C. directory server
D. application server
Answer: D
3.What can be achieved by IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business protecting IBM Tivoli Identity
Manager?
A. data sync
B. access control
C. roles management
D. federated identity management
Answer: B
4.JavaScript is used in which IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 task?
A. ACIs
B. Reports
C. Data Synchronization
D. Provisioning Policy Entitlements
Answer: D
5.Which task can be done using the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) Self-Service User Interface
application?
A. manage service profiles
B. manage password changes
C. export text files through the FTP transport
D. send e-mail notifications to the ITIM administrator
Answer: B
6.What is one purpose of IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 adapters?
A. to send SMTP alerts
B. to provision VMware images
C. to send text files by FTP action
D. to provision and de-provision accounts
Answer: D
7.What configuration option is provided by the Middleware Configuration Utility?
A. create and configure the directory server
B. create and configure the application server
C. create and configure the HTTP Server plug-in
D. create and configure the directory integrator server
Answer: A
8.Which attribute is required for an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager custom person entity?
A. cn
B. uid
C. mail
D. eraliases
Answer: A
9.What is an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) service?
A. It represents a custom tool used to create an adapter using IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator.
B. It represents an instance of a resource such as an operating system or mail server that ITIM can
manage.
C. It represents an instance of a manage resource in order to provision identity policy to the federated
identity server.
D. It represents a user repository which a user can be provisioned and have access to modify XML; it also
represents SOAP 2.0
Answer: B
10.What is a function of an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager adapter?
A. to log access activities on the managed resource
B. to provide reporting capability on a managed resource
C. to create and modify accounts on a managed resource
D. to create and modify password rules on a managed resource
Answer: C
11.Which product can be configured with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager for auditing requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Security Operation Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Compliance Operation Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business
Answer: B
12.Which policy type allows accounts and accesses to be validated periodically?
A. Identity
B. Adoption
C. Provisioning
D. Recertification
Answer: D
13.What are two output formats generated by IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 reports? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. PDF
C. CSV
D. DSML
E. Microsoft Word
Answer: B, C
14.What is available to define the User ID for account provisioning in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1
(ITIM)?
A. HR Feed
B. ITIM Adapter
C. Identity Policy
D. Adoption Policy
Answer: C
15.Which activity should be included during the requirements gathering phase for automating account
provisioning?
A. document reverse password synchronization
B. document challenge and response questions
C. document Self-Service Console requirements
D. document relationships between roles and accounts
Answer: D
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provisioning policies and roles in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1?
A. The user's accounts are suspended on managed targets.
B. The user's identity is suspended and the accounts are deleted on the managed target.
C. The user's accounts will be modified in order to grant access rights to managed targets.
D. The user's accounts are added to the suspended group on the Enterprise Directory Server.
Answer: A
2.Where does JavaScript defined with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager (ITIM) execute.?
A. browser
B. database
C. directory server
D. application server
Answer: D
3.What can be achieved by IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business protecting IBM Tivoli Identity
Manager?
A. data sync
B. access control
C. roles management
D. federated identity management
Answer: B
4.JavaScript is used in which IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 task?
A. ACIs
B. Reports
C. Data Synchronization
D. Provisioning Policy Entitlements
Answer: D
5.Which task can be done using the IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) Self-Service User Interface
application?
A. manage service profiles
B. manage password changes
C. export text files through the FTP transport
D. send e-mail notifications to the ITIM administrator
Answer: B
6.What is one purpose of IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 adapters?
A. to send SMTP alerts
B. to provision VMware images
C. to send text files by FTP action
D. to provision and de-provision accounts
Answer: D
7.What configuration option is provided by the Middleware Configuration Utility?
A. create and configure the directory server
B. create and configure the application server
C. create and configure the HTTP Server plug-in
D. create and configure the directory integrator server
Answer: A
8.Which attribute is required for an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager custom person entity?
A. cn
B. uid
C. mail
D. eraliases
Answer: A
9.What is an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 (ITIM) service?
A. It represents a custom tool used to create an adapter using IBM Tivoli Directory Integrator.
B. It represents an instance of a resource such as an operating system or mail server that ITIM can
manage.
C. It represents an instance of a manage resource in order to provision identity policy to the federated
identity server.
D. It represents a user repository which a user can be provisioned and have access to modify XML; it also
represents SOAP 2.0
Answer: B
10.What is a function of an IBM Tivoli Identity Manager adapter?
A. to log access activities on the managed resource
B. to provide reporting capability on a managed resource
C. to create and modify accounts on a managed resource
D. to create and modify password rules on a managed resource
Answer: C
11.Which product can be configured with IBM Tivoli Identity Manager for auditing requirements?
A. IBM Tivoli Security Operation Manager
B. IBM Tivoli Compliance Insight Manager
C. IBM Tivoli Compliance Operation Manager
D. IBM Tivoli Access Manager for e-business
Answer: B
12.Which policy type allows accounts and accesses to be validated periodically?
A. Identity
B. Adoption
C. Provisioning
D. Recertification
Answer: D
13.What are two output formats generated by IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 reports? (Choose two.)
A. XML
B. PDF
C. CSV
D. DSML
E. Microsoft Word
Answer: B, C
14.What is available to define the User ID for account provisioning in IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1
(ITIM)?
A. HR Feed
B. ITIM Adapter
C. Identity Policy
D. Adoption Policy
Answer: C
15.Which activity should be included during the requirements gathering phase for automating account
provisioning?
A. document reverse password synchronization
B. document challenge and response questions
C. document Self-Service Console requirements
D. document relationships between roles and accounts
Answer: D
We will help you prepare well for your coming IBM 000-038 Certification Exam with confidence.IBM 000-038 Certification Exam Training, Practice Questions and Answers with Explanations, and IBM 000-038 braindumps are available to you on my blog.
Free download IBM 000-038(IBM Tivoli Identity Manager V5.1 Fundamental) training material and Practice Test,if you need more IT exam real Q&As,u can leave ur mailbox,or like my facebook page.
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