1.A project manager is completing a project schedule network diagram using dummy activities to show all
logical relationships.
Which of the following tools is the project manager using?A.ADM
B.WBS
C.AON
D.PDM
Answer: A
2.Which of the following would be the benefit of saving a project binder in a centralized
location?A.Provides an opportunity for another project manager to review the binder and make
corrections
B.Provides an opportunity for team members to review their contributions
C.Provides other project managers the opportunity to review the project information
D.Provides stakeholders the opportunity to modify the change request forms
Answer: B
3.A project is cancelled unexpectedly prior to completion.
Which of the following would the project manager use to document the details of the project
closure?A.Histogram
B.Postmortem
C.SWOT analysis
D.Project scope statement
Answer: B
4.Which of the following is the method for determining the critical path of a project?A.Determine the BAC
of a project and the AC at completion; calculate the difference
B.Examine the project schedule and determine the two most critical milestones: then calculate the total
time form the start of the first determined milestone to the end of the second
C.Examine the project schedule and place all scheduled activities on one time-line, regardless as to
whether they are being implemented in parallel.Then calculate the total time taken
D.Examine the project schedule and calculate the total time taken for all scheduled activities, from
commencement of the project to closure, with zero float
Answer: D
5.The formal process that must be performed at the end of the project to provide the final inspection of the
product is called:A.methodology verification
B.scope verification
C.change verification
D.system verification
Answer: B
6.A key stakeholder has asked the project manager to complete the project a week earlier than
expected.To accomplish this objective, the project manager will have to ask the project team to work
overtime, which will increase the cost of the project.Which of the following should be the NEXTA.Ask the
key stakeholder for more funding for the project
B.Ask the project team to work overtime to finish the project
C.Obtain an approved change control document before changing the project schedule
D.Agree to complete the project using the new schedule
Answer: C
7.Three of the team members are having a conflict with each other.Which of the following steps should
the project manager take to minimize the conflict?
A.Resolve the conflict by terminating the team members
B.Ignore the conflict and keep working on the project
C.Encourage the team members to resolve the conflict
D.Ask the project sponsor to resolve the conflict
Answer: C
8.In order to validate a project, which of the following is required to complete a stakeholder analysis?
A.Verify the project stakeholder needs, wants, and expectations are turned into requirements
B.Verify the project stakeholders have been selected by the project manager to provide the best scope for
the project
C.Verify the project team members will be able to provide the expected stakeholder results
D.Verify the project stakeholders needs are documented in the work breakdown structure (WBS)
Answer: D
9.One of the team members assigned to a project is not performing well.The team member is new and is
not experienced in the type of work involved with this project.Which of the following is the BEST response
to this situation?
A.Ask other members to help
B.Assign the team member to another project
C.Talk to the team member to encourage better performance
D.Arrange for training for the team member
Answer: D
10.Which of the following are common causes of project team conflict? (Select TWO)
A.Project schedule
B.Competing resource demands
C.Project budget
D.Varying work styles
E.Time zone difference
Answer: BD
11.In an attempt to make a deadline, a North American project manager is able to procure emergency
funding for additional people.The resources are located in Europe.Which of the following project
components will have to be updated to reflect working with a new time zone location?
A.Communication plan
B.Risk management plan
C.Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
D.Project scope statement
Answer: C
12.Two employees will not work on the same project together.The project manager tells the employees to
talk to their supervisors because the supervisors recommended they work together.This is an example of
which of the following conflict resolution styles?
A.Withdrawing
B.Forcing
C.Accepting
D.Compromising
Answer: B
13.A project manager needs to identify uncertain events during the planning phase.Which of the following
documents would be the BEST source of this information?
A.Quality log
B.Risk register
C.Issues log
D.Responsibility assignment math
Answer: B
14.A project manager notices that status meetings are poorly attended and that one or two team member
try to dominate the meetings.Which of the following should the project manager do to make the project
status meetings more productive? (Select TWO)
A.Include agenda items in the meeting invitation
B.Ensure that the meetings start and end on time
C.Provide criticism to poor team performers
D.Allow the team members to set the tone of the meeting
E.Discuss issues during the meeting until they are resolved
Answer: AE
15.Two SMEs disagree with the designed plan for a particular component.The project will be delayed if
the plan is not approved today.The project manager demands the SMEs work together to incorporate their
modifications by the close of business today.Which of the following resolution techniques was used?
A.Negotiating
B.Forcing
C.Smoothing
D.Compromise
Answer: B
16.Which of the following can the project manager do to manage scope creep?
A.Be open minded to new ideas to the project
B.Be flexible about what needs to be done to complete the project
C.Be specific when defining project objectives in the project plan
D.Be positive when approached with changes to ensure customer satisfaction
Answer: C
17.Which of the following is the purpose of a milestone schedule?
A.A detailed summary of the project milestones that need to be achieved
B.A summary level timetable of the major project milestones
C.A summary of the anticipated milestones and the issues identified for the project
D.A detailed summary of the anticipated milestones and risks identified for the project
Answer: A
18.A project change is approved by the Change Control Board that modifies the project scope.Which of
the following is the NEXT step that the project
A.Construct a detailed plan to implement the change
B.Analyze the Impact of the change request
C.Document the request in the change control log
D.Request a meeting with the project sponsor to discuss scope creep
Answer: A
19.Which of the following is described when a company requires version control of project documents?
A.Decision oversight
B.Regulatory compliance
C.Internal process compliance
D.Change management controls
Answer: D
20.Transition plans include which of the following elements?
A.Work Breakdown Structure (WBS)
B.Project warranty
C.Project process reports
D.Earned value calculations
Answer: B
21.The method of cost-estimating whereby the costs of the individual work packages are aggregated to
form the full cost-estimate is called:
A.parametric estimating
B.bottom-up estimating
C.expert judgment
D.analogous estimating
Answer: B
22.A project manager has just completed the planning of a project, but cannot start the project execution
until granted permission from the project sponsor.This is an example of which of the following actions?
A.Stakeholder analysis
B.Risk assessment
C.Audit review
D.Phase gate
Answer: D
23.A stakeholder has determined the need to update their payroll method with a new system.Which of the
following is the FIRST activity the corporation should perform?
B.Conduct a feasibility study
C.Determine the justification of the project
D.Obtain a preliminary review by the project selection committee
E.Determine if the project is in alignment with the company strategic plan
Answer: C
24.Which of the following is a component of the cost management plan?
A.Team member compensation
B.Statement of Work (SOW)
C.Project needs assessment
D.Control limits
Answer: D
25.The initiation process concludes with the creation of which of the following?
A.Contingency reserve
B.Project charter
C.Project schedule
D.Project scope statement
Answer: B
26.Which of the following shows the number of communication channels for a team with twelve
stakeholders?
A.56
B.66
C.72
D.132
Answer: C
27.Which of the following is the MOST common relationship used, when constructing a project schedule
network diagram?
A.Start-to-Finish
B.Finish-to-Start
C.Start-to-Start
D.Finish-to-Finish
Answer: B
28.In order to complete the core-project setup, which of the following is the MOST important task of the
project sponsor?
A.Obtain funding for the project
B.Provide quality review of the deliverables
C.Provide leadership to the project team
D.Obtain resolution of the application development Issues
Answer: A
29.Which of the following represents the EAC of an ongoing project with an AC of $100,000, a CV of
$10,000 and an ETC of $50,000?
A.$90,000
B.$140,000
C.$150,000
D.$160,000
Answer: C
30.A project manager learns that a team member has falsified work experience, and does not have the
knowledge required to complete the task.Which of the following should the project manager do?
A.Reassign the individual to another role on the project team
B.Ignore the situation hoping that everything works out for the best
C.Assign other individuals to assist on the task to ensure the task does not get delayed further
D.Replace the member and ask the team manager to assign a more qualified person
Answer: C
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Real Comptia JK0-701 exam Q&As free download
1.Which of the following memory types has a clock speed of 400MHz?
A. PC133
B. PC2700
C. PC3200
D. PC10600
Answer: C
2.A technician receives a Windows laptop that has not been operating correctly since a user changed
some registry settings by mistake. Which of the following should be attempted? FIRST?
A. Reset the CMOS
B. Rollback to a restore point
C. Boot into Safe Mode
D. Reconfigure the BIOS
Answer: B
3.A technician encounters an IP address of 191.15.20.1. The IP address is a member of
which of the following classes?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: B
4.Which of the following cables allows for the transfer of video and sound?
A. VGA
B. S-Video
C. DVI
D. HDMI
Answer: D
5.Which of the following is placed directly on the CPU in a new computer system to aid in the cooling
process?
A. Heatsink
B. Fan
C. Liquid cooling system
D. Thermal compound
Answer: D
6.When determining a customer's specific issue, which of the following is the BEST
approach?
A. Ask the customer to speak with someone else that may be able to help.
B. Ask open-ended Questions to narrow the scope of the problem.
C. Ask a co-worker what the customer is trying to explain.
D. Ask focused Questions that lead the customer with yes or no Answers.
Answer: B
7.Which of the following printer types is the BEST for a technician to recommend to a
company needing to print 10,000 black and white pages per month?
A. Laser
B. Thermal
C. Inkjet
D. Dot Matrix
Answer: A
8.Which of the following keyboard combinations will lock a Windows XP workstation?
A. Windows Key + L
B. CTRL + ALT + Delete
C. Windows Key + CTRL + Backspace
D. Windows Key + CTRL + Escape
Answer: B
9.A customer wants to be able to search the Internet wirelessly with their laptop, from any location. Which
of the following devices would be MOST effective in achieving this?
A. Bluetooth card
B. 802.11 a/b/g WiFicard
C. 802.11n WiFi card
D. Cellular WAN card
Answer: D
10.A customer wants to connect an external projector to a laptop. The projector is plugged into the
external video port but no video is shown on the projector. Which of the following will correct the problem?
A. Upgrade the BIOS.
B. Release the LCD cutoff switch.
C. Toggle the WiFi switch.
D. Toggle the Fn key.
Answer: D
11.A technician has determined that the primary hard drive has failed and the defective hard drive has
been replaced. According to the troubleshooting process, which of the following steps would come
NEXT?
A. Document the setting.
B. Establish a probable cause.
C. Verify full system operation.
D. Question the user.
Answer: C
12.Which of the following commands is used to bring up the interface that allows a
technician to edit startup services and applications?
A. msinfo32
B. cmd
C. dxdiag
D. msconfig
Answer: D
13.Which of the following Windows Vista versions can be installed on a system with
512MB of RAM and a 40GB HDD?
A. Home Basic
B. Home Premium
C. Ultimate
D. Business
Answer: A
14.Which of the following is an example of a manufacturer's image stored on a hard drive?
A. Factory Recovery Partition
B. OEM Version
C. Recovery CD
D. Network Install
Answer: A
15.802.11n has the potential to support up to:
A. 11Mbps.
B. 20Mbps.
C. 54Mbps.
D. 100Mbps.
Answer: D
16.A CRT monitor is flickering very rapidly, making it very uncomfortable to view. This can be corrected
by:
A. Adjusting the refresh rate.
B. Adjusting the dot pitch.
C. Degaussing the monitor.
D. Adjusting the resolution.
Answer: A
17.A PC is having its PSU replaced and the new PSU has a connector that is too large for the
motherboard's socket. Which of the following is needed to solve this issue?
A. The PC needs a NLX to ATX adapter.
B. The PC needs a 26-to-20 pin ATX adapter.
C. The PC needs a 24-to-20 pin ATX adapter.
D. The PC needs an AT-to-ATX adapter.
Answer: C
18.Every time the computer starts a technician receives a message saying that the computer case has
been opened. Which of the following can be disabled in the BIOS to prevent this message from
appearing?
A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
B. Intrusion detection
C. WiFi Protected Access (WPA)
D. Firewall
Answer: B
19.Which of the following media types is MOST affected by the RPM rating?
A. SDD
B. Flash
C. Tape
D. HDD
Answer: D
20.A technician downloads an updated version of the driver for a sound card in Windows XP. After
extracting the driver, how would the technician update the driver?
A. Device Manager> expand 'Sound, video and game controllers'>double click on the
name of the sound card> Troubleshoot'
B. Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Update Drivers>double click on 'Sound Card'
C. Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Sound Devices > 'Update Driver'
D. Device Manager>Driver tab> Update Driver> Double click on the name of the sound card under 'Sound,
video and game controllers'
Answer: D
21.Which of the following connectors are used for musical equipment?
A. DVI
B. MIDI
C. 6-pin mini-DIN
D. HDMI
Answer: B
22.Which of the following broadband technologies provides the FASTEST bandwidth speeds?
A. DSL
B. Cable
C. Satellite
D. Fiber
Answer: D
23.Which of the following Windows utilities will identify issues with drivers and programs running under
Windows XP?
A. System Information
B. Hardware Compatibility List
C. Dr. Watson
D. Program Compatibility Wizard
Answer: D
24.Which of the following IP ranges is Class C?
A. 192.0.0.0-223.255.255.255
B. 128.0.0.0-191.255.255.255
C. 1.1.1.1-126.255.255.255
D. 224.0.0.0-255.255.255.0
Answer: A
25.In the laser printing process, which of the following is true?
A. A wax-based substance is melted and applied directly to the media.
B. Toner is applied to a photoconductor and transferred to the media.
C. Heat is applied to heat-sensitive media to create an image.
D. Toner is sprayed to the media.
Answer: B
26.A computer fails POST with 1 long, and 2 short beeps. Which of the following components has MOST
likely failed?
A. Sound card
B. Power supply
C. NIC
D. Video card
Answer: D
27.Which of the following wireless network features grants the ability to select which devices connect to a
wireless network based on a device's hardware address?
A. WPA encryption
B. MAC filtering
C. NAT translation
D. SSID broadcasting
Answer: B
28.Which of the following connector types is used on CAT5e cable?
A. RJ-45
B. ST
C. RJ-11
D. BNC
Answer: A
29.A technician is installing Windows Vista onto a new computer locally. Which of the following describes
the method the technician would MOST likely use?
A. Floppy
B. DVD
C. Blu-Ray
D. PXE
Answer: B
30.A technician is repairing a keyboard issue, in which the keys are not typing anything within document
editing software. After Questioning the user, the technician discovers that the user was eating lunch while
typing the document. The technician comes to the conclusion that liquid was spilled onto the keyboard.
According to the troubleshooting theory, which of the following would be the NEXT step to follow?
A. Ask the user open-ended Questions.
B. Make closing notes of the repair.
C. Replace the keyboard with a new keyboard.
D. Verify the system functionality.
Answer: C
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A. PC133
B. PC2700
C. PC3200
D. PC10600
Answer: C
2.A technician receives a Windows laptop that has not been operating correctly since a user changed
some registry settings by mistake. Which of the following should be attempted? FIRST?
A. Reset the CMOS
B. Rollback to a restore point
C. Boot into Safe Mode
D. Reconfigure the BIOS
Answer: B
3.A technician encounters an IP address of 191.15.20.1. The IP address is a member of
which of the following classes?
A. Class A
B. Class B
C. Class C
D. Class D
Answer: B
4.Which of the following cables allows for the transfer of video and sound?
A. VGA
B. S-Video
C. DVI
D. HDMI
Answer: D
5.Which of the following is placed directly on the CPU in a new computer system to aid in the cooling
process?
A. Heatsink
B. Fan
C. Liquid cooling system
D. Thermal compound
Answer: D
6.When determining a customer's specific issue, which of the following is the BEST
approach?
A. Ask the customer to speak with someone else that may be able to help.
B. Ask open-ended Questions to narrow the scope of the problem.
C. Ask a co-worker what the customer is trying to explain.
D. Ask focused Questions that lead the customer with yes or no Answers.
Answer: B
7.Which of the following printer types is the BEST for a technician to recommend to a
company needing to print 10,000 black and white pages per month?
A. Laser
B. Thermal
C. Inkjet
D. Dot Matrix
Answer: A
8.Which of the following keyboard combinations will lock a Windows XP workstation?
A. Windows Key + L
B. CTRL + ALT + Delete
C. Windows Key + CTRL + Backspace
D. Windows Key + CTRL + Escape
Answer: B
9.A customer wants to be able to search the Internet wirelessly with their laptop, from any location. Which
of the following devices would be MOST effective in achieving this?
A. Bluetooth card
B. 802.11 a/b/g WiFicard
C. 802.11n WiFi card
D. Cellular WAN card
Answer: D
10.A customer wants to connect an external projector to a laptop. The projector is plugged into the
external video port but no video is shown on the projector. Which of the following will correct the problem?
A. Upgrade the BIOS.
B. Release the LCD cutoff switch.
C. Toggle the WiFi switch.
D. Toggle the Fn key.
Answer: D
11.A technician has determined that the primary hard drive has failed and the defective hard drive has
been replaced. According to the troubleshooting process, which of the following steps would come
NEXT?
A. Document the setting.
B. Establish a probable cause.
C. Verify full system operation.
D. Question the user.
Answer: C
12.Which of the following commands is used to bring up the interface that allows a
technician to edit startup services and applications?
A. msinfo32
B. cmd
C. dxdiag
D. msconfig
Answer: D
13.Which of the following Windows Vista versions can be installed on a system with
512MB of RAM and a 40GB HDD?
A. Home Basic
B. Home Premium
C. Ultimate
D. Business
Answer: A
14.Which of the following is an example of a manufacturer's image stored on a hard drive?
A. Factory Recovery Partition
B. OEM Version
C. Recovery CD
D. Network Install
Answer: A
15.802.11n has the potential to support up to:
A. 11Mbps.
B. 20Mbps.
C. 54Mbps.
D. 100Mbps.
Answer: D
16.A CRT monitor is flickering very rapidly, making it very uncomfortable to view. This can be corrected
by:
A. Adjusting the refresh rate.
B. Adjusting the dot pitch.
C. Degaussing the monitor.
D. Adjusting the resolution.
Answer: A
17.A PC is having its PSU replaced and the new PSU has a connector that is too large for the
motherboard's socket. Which of the following is needed to solve this issue?
A. The PC needs a NLX to ATX adapter.
B. The PC needs a 26-to-20 pin ATX adapter.
C. The PC needs a 24-to-20 pin ATX adapter.
D. The PC needs an AT-to-ATX adapter.
Answer: C
18.Every time the computer starts a technician receives a message saying that the computer case has
been opened. Which of the following can be disabled in the BIOS to prevent this message from
appearing?
A. Trusted Platform Module (TPM)
B. Intrusion detection
C. WiFi Protected Access (WPA)
D. Firewall
Answer: B
19.Which of the following media types is MOST affected by the RPM rating?
A. SDD
B. Flash
C. Tape
D. HDD
Answer: D
20.A technician downloads an updated version of the driver for a sound card in Windows XP. After
extracting the driver, how would the technician update the driver?
A. Device Manager> expand 'Sound, video and game controllers'>double click on the
name of the sound card> Troubleshoot'
B. Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Update Drivers>double click on 'Sound Card'
C. Start > Control Panel > Administrative Tools > Sound Devices > 'Update Driver'
D. Device Manager>Driver tab> Update Driver> Double click on the name of the sound card under 'Sound,
video and game controllers'
Answer: D
21.Which of the following connectors are used for musical equipment?
A. DVI
B. MIDI
C. 6-pin mini-DIN
D. HDMI
Answer: B
22.Which of the following broadband technologies provides the FASTEST bandwidth speeds?
A. DSL
B. Cable
C. Satellite
D. Fiber
Answer: D
23.Which of the following Windows utilities will identify issues with drivers and programs running under
Windows XP?
A. System Information
B. Hardware Compatibility List
C. Dr. Watson
D. Program Compatibility Wizard
Answer: D
24.Which of the following IP ranges is Class C?
A. 192.0.0.0-223.255.255.255
B. 128.0.0.0-191.255.255.255
C. 1.1.1.1-126.255.255.255
D. 224.0.0.0-255.255.255.0
Answer: A
25.In the laser printing process, which of the following is true?
A. A wax-based substance is melted and applied directly to the media.
B. Toner is applied to a photoconductor and transferred to the media.
C. Heat is applied to heat-sensitive media to create an image.
D. Toner is sprayed to the media.
Answer: B
26.A computer fails POST with 1 long, and 2 short beeps. Which of the following components has MOST
likely failed?
A. Sound card
B. Power supply
C. NIC
D. Video card
Answer: D
27.Which of the following wireless network features grants the ability to select which devices connect to a
wireless network based on a device's hardware address?
A. WPA encryption
B. MAC filtering
C. NAT translation
D. SSID broadcasting
Answer: B
28.Which of the following connector types is used on CAT5e cable?
A. RJ-45
B. ST
C. RJ-11
D. BNC
Answer: A
29.A technician is installing Windows Vista onto a new computer locally. Which of the following describes
the method the technician would MOST likely use?
A. Floppy
B. DVD
C. Blu-Ray
D. PXE
Answer: B
30.A technician is repairing a keyboard issue, in which the keys are not typing anything within document
editing software. After Questioning the user, the technician discovers that the user was eating lunch while
typing the document. The technician comes to the conclusion that liquid was spilled onto the keyboard.
According to the troubleshooting theory, which of the following would be the NEXT step to follow?
A. Ask the user open-ended Questions.
B. Make closing notes of the repair.
C. Replace the keyboard with a new keyboard.
D. Verify the system functionality.
Answer: C
Free download Comptia A+ JK0-701(CompTIA E2C A+ Essentials (2009 Edition) Exam) training material and Practice Test,if you like this facebook,you will got a lot of free IT certification questions everydays.
Real Microsoft MB3-861 exam Q&As free download
1.Which of the following is not a recommendation when you install Microsoft Dynamics GP 2010?
A. Limit network to one protocol
B. Utilize Shared Memory or VIA
C. Remove unused network protocols
D. Ensure that each computer has a unique IP address
Answer: B
2.Which of the following SQL Server installation options are supported by Microsoft Dynamics GP? Mark
all that apply.
A. Mixed Mode Authentication
B. Named Pipes
C. Sort Orders other than DOCI or Binary
D. Install to a default instance of SQL Server 2008
Answer: AD
3.Which of the following is a limitation when using Microsoft Dynamics GP 2010 with SQL Server 2008
Express?
A. Two company databases
B. 4 GB database size
C. 10 client workstation installations
D. 10 concurrent users
Answer: B
4.Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding ODBC data source setup during the installation of
Microsoft Dynamics GP?
A. The name of the data source is configurable during the installation
B. By default, the data source is automatically created and named Dynamics GP
C. It is not possible to opt out of the data source being automatically created
D. No data source is necessary to use Microsoft Dynamics GP2010
Answer: B
5.When performing a basic installation in Microsoft Dynamics GP Utilities, what are the default settings?
A. The Account Framework has a maximum number of segments of 5; the length of each segment is 9;
B. and there are no sorting options. -
C. The
DYNAMICS database files are created at the default locations defined in the SQL Server. -
D. The system password is blank.
Answer: ABCD
6.When you are performing an Advanced installation in Microsoft Dynamics GP Utilities, what is the
maximum account framework?
A. 66 characters with 10 segments, no storage size limitation
B. 82 characters with unlimited segments, and a storage size of 82 bytes
C. Unlimited characters with 10 segments, and no storage size limitation
D. 66 characters with 10 segments, and a storage size of 82 bytes
Answer: D
7.What changes are made to the SQL Server after the DYNAMICS database is initialized?
A. The DYNAMICS database is created,
B. tables are added to the database, the DYNGRP, DYNWORKFLOWGRP,
C. and RAPIDGRP roles are created, and the DYNSA user is created.
D. None
Answer: ABC
8.Which of the following tasks can you complete using Microsoft Dynamics GP Utilities? Mark all that
apply.
A. Add Sample Company Data
B. Add a Company
C. Create a Client Package
D. Set up Microsoft Dynamics GP Security
Answer: AB
9.Creating the sample company in Microsoft Dynamics GP Utilities will do which of the following? Mark all
that apply.
A. Create the sample company database TWO in SQL Server
B. Copy all settings from a live company to the sample company
C. Add data to the tables in the TWO database for testing and troubleshooting purposes
D. Create the role SAMPLE in the SQL Server
Answer: AC
10.What is the name of the log file that is created during the installation of Microsoft Dynamics GP?
A. duinstall.log
B. GPSInstall.txt
C. GPLoginErrors.log
D. DynamicsGPInstall.log
Answer: D
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A. Limit network to one protocol
B. Utilize Shared Memory or VIA
C. Remove unused network protocols
D. Ensure that each computer has a unique IP address
Answer: B
2.Which of the following SQL Server installation options are supported by Microsoft Dynamics GP? Mark
all that apply.
A. Mixed Mode Authentication
B. Named Pipes
C. Sort Orders other than DOCI or Binary
D. Install to a default instance of SQL Server 2008
Answer: AD
3.Which of the following is a limitation when using Microsoft Dynamics GP 2010 with SQL Server 2008
Express?
A. Two company databases
B. 4 GB database size
C. 10 client workstation installations
D. 10 concurrent users
Answer: B
4.Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding ODBC data source setup during the installation of
Microsoft Dynamics GP?
A. The name of the data source is configurable during the installation
B. By default, the data source is automatically created and named Dynamics GP
C. It is not possible to opt out of the data source being automatically created
D. No data source is necessary to use Microsoft Dynamics GP2010
Answer: B
5.When performing a basic installation in Microsoft Dynamics GP Utilities, what are the default settings?
A. The Account Framework has a maximum number of segments of 5; the length of each segment is 9;
B. and there are no sorting options. -
C. The
DYNAMICS database files are created at the default locations defined in the SQL Server. -
D. The system password is blank.
Answer: ABCD
6.When you are performing an Advanced installation in Microsoft Dynamics GP Utilities, what is the
maximum account framework?
A. 66 characters with 10 segments, no storage size limitation
B. 82 characters with unlimited segments, and a storage size of 82 bytes
C. Unlimited characters with 10 segments, and no storage size limitation
D. 66 characters with 10 segments, and a storage size of 82 bytes
Answer: D
7.What changes are made to the SQL Server after the DYNAMICS database is initialized?
A. The DYNAMICS database is created,
B. tables are added to the database, the DYNGRP, DYNWORKFLOWGRP,
C. and RAPIDGRP roles are created, and the DYNSA user is created.
D. None
Answer: ABC
8.Which of the following tasks can you complete using Microsoft Dynamics GP Utilities? Mark all that
apply.
A. Add Sample Company Data
B. Add a Company
C. Create a Client Package
D. Set up Microsoft Dynamics GP Security
Answer: AB
9.Creating the sample company in Microsoft Dynamics GP Utilities will do which of the following? Mark all
that apply.
A. Create the sample company database TWO in SQL Server
B. Copy all settings from a live company to the sample company
C. Add data to the tables in the TWO database for testing and troubleshooting purposes
D. Create the role SAMPLE in the SQL Server
Answer: AC
10.What is the name of the log file that is created during the installation of Microsoft Dynamics GP?
A. duinstall.log
B. GPSInstall.txt
C. GPLoginErrors.log
D. DynamicsGPInstall.log
Answer: D
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Real Microsoft MB7-846 exam Q&As free download
1.What must you set up in Relationship Management to synchronize customers, vendors, and bank
accounts with contacts?
A. Interaction IDs
B. Duplicates
C. Inheritance codes
D. Business relation codes
Answer: D
2.Which of the following activities in Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 can be automatically recorded as an
interaction?
A. Creating a finance charge memo
B. Archiving a sales order
C. Posting a purchase order
D. Printing a purchase receipt
Answer: D
3.What must you set up in the Interaction Template Setup window for the program to automatically log
outgoing phone calls you make as an interaction?
A. Synchronization with customers and vendors
B. Interaction template code
C. Logging user ID
D. Correspondence type
Answer: B
4.You are a sales manager for a company that has just upgraded to Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. You
are setting up Relationship Management and need to set up e mail logging to trace your e mail
messages with contacts, customers, and vendors. Where can you define all of the e mail logging setup
options?
A. Role Center
B. Marketing Setup window in the RoleTailored client
C. Marketing Setup window in the Classic client
D. Interaction Template Setup window in the Classic or RoleTailored client
Answer: C
5.Which of the following Relationship Management entities are processed by the program when you
search for a contact using the Contact Search feature? Choose the 3 that apply.
A. Contacts
B. Campaigns
C. To dos
D. Comments
Answer: A, C, D
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accounts with contacts?
A. Interaction IDs
B. Duplicates
C. Inheritance codes
D. Business relation codes
Answer: D
2.Which of the following activities in Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009 can be automatically recorded as an
interaction?
A. Creating a finance charge memo
B. Archiving a sales order
C. Posting a purchase order
D. Printing a purchase receipt
Answer: D
3.What must you set up in the Interaction Template Setup window for the program to automatically log
outgoing phone calls you make as an interaction?
A. Synchronization with customers and vendors
B. Interaction template code
C. Logging user ID
D. Correspondence type
Answer: B
4.You are a sales manager for a company that has just upgraded to Microsoft Dynamics NAV 2009. You
are setting up Relationship Management and need to set up e mail logging to trace your e mail
messages with contacts, customers, and vendors. Where can you define all of the e mail logging setup
options?
A. Role Center
B. Marketing Setup window in the RoleTailored client
C. Marketing Setup window in the Classic client
D. Interaction Template Setup window in the Classic or RoleTailored client
Answer: C
5.Which of the following Relationship Management entities are processed by the program when you
search for a contact using the Contact Search feature? Choose the 3 that apply.
A. Contacts
B. Campaigns
C. To dos
D. Comments
Answer: A, C, D
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Real Business Objects SABE301 exam Q&As free download
1.Which Crystal Reports Page Server setting should you use to prevent users from running
on-demand reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D
2.Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to
add another Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports
Job Server service. Using the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager,
which three tasks must you perform? (Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B, C, D
3.When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C
4.Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server? (Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A, C, D
5.Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups? (Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B, C
6.When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C
7.What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C
8.Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A, B
9.When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A, B, C
10.When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A
11.Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B
12.What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the Desktop
Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A
13.A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B
14.Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, C, D, E
15.Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, B, C, E
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on-demand reports containing queries that return excessively large record sets?
A. SQuestionL_MAX_ROWS
B. Limit SQuestionL Cursor Fetch Size
C. Preview Sample Data
D. Database Records to Read When Previewing or Refreshing a Report
Answer: D
2.Your currently run you BusinessObjects Enterprise system on multiple servers. You want to
add another Crystal Reports Job Server service to the machine running the Crystal Reports
Job Server service. Using the Add Server Wizard in the Central Configuration Manager,
which three tasks must you perform? (Choose three.)
A. Synchronize the server
B. Start the server
C. Create the server
D. Enable the server
Answer: B, C, D
3.When a scheduled Crystal Report runs successfully, which server notifies the Central Management
Server (CMS) of the instance status?
A. Crystal Reports Page Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Crystal Reports Job Server
D. Web Application Server
Answer: C
4.Which three statements describe the role of the Web Intelligence Report Server? (Choose three.)
A. Fulfills on demand Web Intelligence report requests
B. Updates the Central Management Server (CMS) with instance status
C. Processes scheduled Web Intelligence report requests
D. Creates report instances for Web Intelligence report reports
Answer: A, C, D
5.Which two statements describe situations that will benefit from using server groups? (Choose two.)
A. You intend to cluster the Central Management Server (CMS).
B. Datasources are located in geographically dispersed locations.
C. Some processing servers are configured for specific databases.
D. You are using a web farm.
Answer: B, C
6.When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, what is the minimum disk space required for the drive
holding the TEMP directory?
A. 100 MB
B. 500 MB
C. 700 MB
D. 1000 MB
Answer: C
7.What is a requirement for a client running the Central Management Console?
A. The Publishing Wizard must be installed
B. All BusinessObjects Enterprise servers must be installed
C. Network connectivity to the Central Management Server (CMS)
D. Network connectivity to the Production Database
Answer: C
8.Where do you configure the BusinessObjects Enterprise Web Component Adapter (WCA)?
(Choose two.)
A. wcaconfig.ini file in the InfoView directory
B. web.config file in the WebContent directory
C. Central Configuration Manager
D. Central Management Console
Answer: A, B
9.When you install BusinessObjects Enterprise, a number of options are available from the initial Install
type screen. Select three of the options that appear on this screen. (Choose three.)
A. Expand
B. New
C. Custom
D. Silent Installation
Answer: A, B, C
10.When does Crystal Reports communicate with the BusinessObjects Enterprise infrastructure?
A. When opening a report from the Enterprise folders
B. When opening a successful report instance sent as an email attachment by the Crystal Reports Job
Server
C. When importing a Crystal Reports from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
D. When scheduling a Crystal Reports from the Central Management Console (CMC)
Answer: A
11.Where does the list of Values (LOV) Job Server store reports when it processes scheduled List of
Value objects?
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Repository Manager
D. Central Management Server (CMS) System Database
Answer: B
12.What is the recommended value for the Maximum Simultaneous Report parameter of the Desktop
Intelligence Report Server?
A. Two greater than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
B. Two less than the Number of Preloaded Report Jobs value
C. The same value set for Number of Preloaded Report Jobs
D. No more than fifty per processor
Answer: A
13.A user schedules a Crystal Report. What step does the Crystal Reports Job Server take when the
Schedule time is reached?
A. Starts a JobServer thread to run the report
B. Spawns a JobServerChild process to run the report
C. Contacts the Crystal Reports Page Server for the location of the report
D. Runs the report immediately by opening the report from the Input File Repository Server (FRS)
Answer: B
14.Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled List of Values (LOV) object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Crystal Reports Job Server
C. Output File Repository Server
D. List of values Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, C, D, E
15.Which four servers are involved in processing a scheduled Program object? (Choose four.)
A. Input File Repository Server
B. Output File Repository Server
C. Program Job Server
D. Destination Job Server
E. Central Management Server
Answer: A, B, C, E
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Real Zend ZF-100-500 exam Q&As free download
1.Fill in the blank with the appropriate PHP function.
The_____________ function is used to replace the current session id with the new session id, and to
keep information of the current session.
A. session_regenerate_id()
Answer: A
2.Celina works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses an Oracle database.
The database contains a table named Employees. Following is the structure of the table:
EmpID NUMBER (5) PRIMARY KEY
EmpName VARCHAR2 (35) NOT NULL
Salary NUMBER (9, 2) NOT NULL
Commission NUMBER (4, 2)
ManagerName VARCHAR2 (25)
ManagerID NUMBER (5)
Celina wants to display the names of employees and their managers, using a self join. Which of the
following SQL statements will she use to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName
FROM Employees e, Employeesm
WHERE e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
B. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName
FROM Employees e INNER JOIN Employeesm
ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
C. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName
FROM Employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN Employees m
ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
D. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName
FROM Employees e SELF JOIN Employeesm
ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
Answer: A,B
3.Which of the following actions may fail if you have exceeded your quota limit?
A. addTo()
B. send()
C. addBcc()
D. appendMessage()
Answer: D
4.Which of the following code snippets will you use to instantiate Zend_XmlRpc_Server?
A. $server = Zend_Xml::Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
B. $server = new Zend_Xml();
C. $server = new Zend_XmlRpc_Server();
D. $server = create_new_Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
Answer: C
5.Write the appropriate word to complete the sentence below.
___________is used for logging of multiple backends, formatting messages which are sent to the log, and
filtering those messages, which should not be logged.
A. Zend_Log
Answer: A
6.Which of the following is used to create a new Memory Manager?
A. Zend_Memory::factory()
B. Zend_Memory->NewMemoryManager()
C. Zend_Memory->factory()
D. Zend_Memory::NewMemoryManager()
Answer: A
7.You want a formatted date for an RSS feed. Which of the following code syntaxes will you use to
accomplish the task?
A. Zend_Date::RSSFEED
B. Zend_Date::RSS
C. $RSS= new Zend_RSS_Date()
D. Zend_Date->RSS
Answer: B
8.Fill in the blank with the appropriate method name.
The__________ method is used to send an email in the HTML format.
A. setBodyHTML()
Answer: A
9.Which of the following methods will you use to retain the identity across requests according to the PHP
session configuration?
A. isValid()
B. getIdentity()
C. Zend_Auth::authenticate()
D. getCode()
Answer: C
10.Which of the following code snippets will you use to create an index in Zend_Search_Lucene?
1. addField(Zend_Search_Lucene_Field::Text('url', $docUrl));
5. $Search_Doc ->addField(
6. Zend_Search_Lucene_Field::UnStored(
7. 'contents',
8. $docContent
9. )
10. );
11. $index->addDocument($Search_Doc);
A. $Search_Index = Zend_Search_Lucene::create_Index('/data/my-index');
$Search_Doc = new Zend_Search_Lucene_Document();
B. $Search_Index = Zend_Search_Lucene::open_Index('/data/my-index');
$Search_Doc = new Zend_Search_Lucene_Document();
C. $Search_Index = Zend_Search_Lucene::create('/data/my-index');
$Search_Doc = new Zend_Search_Lucene_Document();
D. $Search_Index = Zend_Search_Lucene::open('/data/my-index');
$Search_Doc = new Zend_Search_Lucene_Document();
Answer: C
11.Which of the following methods in Zend_Controller_Action can be used for resetting the state when
multiple controllers use the same helper in the chained actions?
A. preDispatch()
B. setActionController()
C. postDispatch()
D. init()
Answer: D
12.You want to retrieve all the data from any given table. You also want to ensure that no duplicate values
are displayed. Which of the following SQL statements will you use to accomplish the task?
A. SELECT...TOP
B. SELECT...WHERE
C. SELECT...DISTINCT
D. SELECT...ALL
Answer: C
13.Consider the following code segment:
1. setBodyText('This is the test email.');
5. $mail->setFrom('somebody@example.com', 'Sender');
6. $mail->addTo('somebody_else@example.com', 'Recipient');
7. $mail->setSubject('TestSubject');
8. $mail->send();
9. ?>
Which of the following code snippets will you use at line number 3 to initiate Zend_Mail?
A. $mail = new Zend_Mail();
B. $mail => initialize_Zend_Mail();
C. $mail -> Zend_Mail();
D. $mail => Zend_Mail();
Answer: A
14.Which of the following functions sets up start and end element handlers?
A. xml_parse_into_struct()
B. xml_parser_create_ns()
C. xml_set_object()
D. xml_set_element_handler()
Answer: D
15.Which of the following functions can be used as a countermeasure to a Shell Injection attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. mysql_real_escape_string()
B. escapeshellcmd()
C. regenerateid()
D. escapeshellarg()
Answer: B,D
16.You have a table created as follows:
create table foo (c1 int, c2 char(30), c3 int, c4 char(10))
If column c1 is unique, which of the following indexes would optimize the statement given below?
Select distinct (c1), c3 from foo where c1=10
A. create unique index foox on foo (c1) include (c3)
B. create index foox on foo (c1)
C. create index foox on foo (c1,c3)
D. create unique index foox on foo (c1,c3)
Answer: A
17.You want to set the form method in post and action to /uc/zend.php when you are using the
Zend_Form class. Which of the following code snippets will you use to accomplish the task?
A. setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->setMethod('post');
B. ";
C. ('/uc/zend.php')
->('post');
D. Zend::setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->Zend::setMethod('post');
Answer: A
18.In which of the following situations will you use the set_exception_handler() function?
A. When you want to restore a previously defined exception handler function.
B. When the try/catch block is unable to catch an exception.
C. When you want to set a user-defined function to handle errors.
D. When you want to generate a user-level error/warning/notice message.
Answer: B
19.Which of the following code snippets will you use if you want to connect to a Pop3 server using TLS?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
20.Which of the following are the configuration files that are used in Zend_Config?
A. Zend_Config_Server
B. Zend_Config_Xml
C. Zend_Config_Db
D. Zend_Config_Ini
Answer: B,D
21.Which of the following methods are used by Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_Abstract?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. init()
B. preDispatch()
C. setActionController()
D. getResponseId()
Answer: A,B,C
22.Which of the following are the valid methods of the Zend_Date class?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. set()
B. add()
C. check()
D. get()
E. sub()
Answer: A,B,D,E
23.Which of the following is an example of a database connection that needs to be created once at the
beginning of a script and then used throughout its code?
A. Model-view-controller
B. Factory pattern
C. ActiveRecord
D. Singleton
Answer: D
24.Which of the following clauses is used to specify a column or an array of columns by which to sort?
A. Order By
B. WHERE
C. FROM
D. LIMIT
Answer: A
25.John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters ='or''=' as a username and
successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site. The We-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a
__________.
A. Land attack
B. Replay attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. SQL injection attack
Answer: D
26.Fill in the blank with the appropriate method name.
The__________ method is used to retrieve headers when the storage has been opened.
A. getHeader()
Answer: A
27.Fill in the blank with the appropriate class name.
The______ class is used to load files dynamically.
A. Zend_Loader
Answer: A
28.Which of the following methods of Zend_XmlRpc_Client can you use to instantiate a server proxy call?
A. call()
B. getLastResponse()
C. getProxy()
D. XMLResponse
Answer: C
29.You have given the following XML data in the tasks.XML file:
Validate data
Secure data
Now, you run the following PHP script:
load("tasks.xml");
$note = $objDOM->getElementsByTagName("note");
foreach( $note as $value )
{
$tasks = $value->getElementsByTagName("tasks");
$task = $tasks->item(0)->nodeValue;
$details = $value->getElementsByTagName("details");
$detail = $details->item(0)->nodeValue;
echo "$task :: $detail
";
}
?>
What should be displayed when this script is executed?
A. The contents of the whole XML document
B. The XML of every tasks and details nodes
C. The contents of every tasks and details nodes
D. The XML of whole XML document
Answer: C
30.You run the following PHP script:
What is the use of the mysql_real_escape_string() function in the above script.
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It can be used as a countermeasure against a SQL injection attack.
B. It escapes all special characters from strings $_POST["name"] and $_POST["password"] except ' and".
C. It escapes all special characters from strings $_POST["name"] and $_POST["password"].
D. It can be used to mitigate a cross site scripting attack.
Answer: A,C
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The_____________ function is used to replace the current session id with the new session id, and to
keep information of the current session.
A. session_regenerate_id()
Answer: A
2.Celina works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses an Oracle database.
The database contains a table named Employees. Following is the structure of the table:
EmpID NUMBER (5) PRIMARY KEY
EmpName VARCHAR2 (35) NOT NULL
Salary NUMBER (9, 2) NOT NULL
Commission NUMBER (4, 2)
ManagerName VARCHAR2 (25)
ManagerID NUMBER (5)
Celina wants to display the names of employees and their managers, using a self join. Which of the
following SQL statements will she use to accomplish this?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose two.
A. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName
FROM Employees e, Employeesm
WHERE e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
B. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName
FROM Employees e INNER JOIN Employeesm
ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
C. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName
FROM Employees e LEFT OUTER JOIN Employees m
ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
D. SELECT e.EmpName, m.ManagerName
FROM Employees e SELF JOIN Employeesm
ON e.EmpID = m.ManagerID;
Answer: A,B
3.Which of the following actions may fail if you have exceeded your quota limit?
A. addTo()
B. send()
C. addBcc()
D. appendMessage()
Answer: D
4.Which of the following code snippets will you use to instantiate Zend_XmlRpc_Server?
A. $server = Zend_Xml::Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
B. $server = new Zend_Xml();
C. $server = new Zend_XmlRpc_Server();
D. $server = create_new_Zend_XmlRpc_Server()
Answer: C
5.Write the appropriate word to complete the sentence below.
___________is used for logging of multiple backends, formatting messages which are sent to the log, and
filtering those messages, which should not be logged.
A. Zend_Log
Answer: A
6.Which of the following is used to create a new Memory Manager?
A. Zend_Memory::factory()
B. Zend_Memory->NewMemoryManager()
C. Zend_Memory->factory()
D. Zend_Memory::NewMemoryManager()
Answer: A
7.You want a formatted date for an RSS feed. Which of the following code syntaxes will you use to
accomplish the task?
A. Zend_Date::RSSFEED
B. Zend_Date::RSS
C. $RSS= new Zend_RSS_Date()
D. Zend_Date->RSS
Answer: B
8.Fill in the blank with the appropriate method name.
The__________ method is used to send an email in the HTML format.
A. setBodyHTML()
Answer: A
9.Which of the following methods will you use to retain the identity across requests according to the PHP
session configuration?
A. isValid()
B. getIdentity()
C. Zend_Auth::authenticate()
D. getCode()
Answer: C
10.Which of the following code snippets will you use to create an index in Zend_Search_Lucene?
1. addField(Zend_Search_Lucene_Field::Text('url', $docUrl));
5. $Search_Doc ->addField(
6. Zend_Search_Lucene_Field::UnStored(
7. 'contents',
8. $docContent
9. )
10. );
11. $index->addDocument($Search_Doc);
A. $Search_Index = Zend_Search_Lucene::create_Index('/data/my-index');
$Search_Doc = new Zend_Search_Lucene_Document();
B. $Search_Index = Zend_Search_Lucene::open_Index('/data/my-index');
$Search_Doc = new Zend_Search_Lucene_Document();
C. $Search_Index = Zend_Search_Lucene::create('/data/my-index');
$Search_Doc = new Zend_Search_Lucene_Document();
D. $Search_Index = Zend_Search_Lucene::open('/data/my-index');
$Search_Doc = new Zend_Search_Lucene_Document();
Answer: C
11.Which of the following methods in Zend_Controller_Action can be used for resetting the state when
multiple controllers use the same helper in the chained actions?
A. preDispatch()
B. setActionController()
C. postDispatch()
D. init()
Answer: D
12.You want to retrieve all the data from any given table. You also want to ensure that no duplicate values
are displayed. Which of the following SQL statements will you use to accomplish the task?
A. SELECT...TOP
B. SELECT...WHERE
C. SELECT...DISTINCT
D. SELECT...ALL
Answer: C
13.Consider the following code segment:
1. setBodyText('This is the test email.');
5. $mail->setFrom('somebody@example.com', 'Sender');
6. $mail->addTo('somebody_else@example.com', 'Recipient');
7. $mail->setSubject('TestSubject');
8. $mail->send();
9. ?>
Which of the following code snippets will you use at line number 3 to initiate Zend_Mail?
A. $mail = new Zend_Mail();
B. $mail => initialize_Zend_Mail();
C. $mail -> Zend_Mail();
D. $mail => Zend_Mail();
Answer: A
14.Which of the following functions sets up start and end element handlers?
A. xml_parse_into_struct()
B. xml_parser_create_ns()
C. xml_set_object()
D. xml_set_element_handler()
Answer: D
15.Which of the following functions can be used as a countermeasure to a Shell Injection attack?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. mysql_real_escape_string()
B. escapeshellcmd()
C. regenerateid()
D. escapeshellarg()
Answer: B,D
16.You have a table created as follows:
create table foo (c1 int, c2 char(30), c3 int, c4 char(10))
If column c1 is unique, which of the following indexes would optimize the statement given below?
Select distinct (c1), c3 from foo where c1=10
A. create unique index foox on foo (c1) include (c3)
B. create index foox on foo (c1)
C. create index foox on foo (c1,c3)
D. create unique index foox on foo (c1,c3)
Answer: A
17.You want to set the form method in post and action to /uc/zend.php when you are using the
Zend_Form class. Which of the following code snippets will you use to accomplish the task?
A. setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->setMethod('post');
B. ";
C. ('/uc/zend.php')
->('post');
D. Zend::setAction('/uc/zend.php')
->Zend::setMethod('post');
Answer: A
18.In which of the following situations will you use the set_exception_handler() function?
A. When you want to restore a previously defined exception handler function.
B. When the try/catch block is unable to catch an exception.
C. When you want to set a user-defined function to handle errors.
D. When you want to generate a user-level error/warning/notice message.
Answer: B
19.Which of the following code snippets will you use if you want to connect to a Pop3 server using TLS?
A.
B.
C.
D.
Answer: C
20.Which of the following are the configuration files that are used in Zend_Config?
A. Zend_Config_Server
B. Zend_Config_Xml
C. Zend_Config_Db
D. Zend_Config_Ini
Answer: B,D
21.Which of the following methods are used by Zend_Controller_Action_Helper_Abstract?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. init()
B. preDispatch()
C. setActionController()
D. getResponseId()
Answer: A,B,C
22.Which of the following are the valid methods of the Zend_Date class?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. set()
B. add()
C. check()
D. get()
E. sub()
Answer: A,B,D,E
23.Which of the following is an example of a database connection that needs to be created once at the
beginning of a script and then used throughout its code?
A. Model-view-controller
B. Factory pattern
C. ActiveRecord
D. Singleton
Answer: D
24.Which of the following clauses is used to specify a column or an array of columns by which to sort?
A. Order By
B. WHERE
C. FROM
D. LIMIT
Answer: A
25.John works as a professional Ethical Hacker. He has been assigned a project to test the security of
www.we-are-secure.com. On the We-are-secure login page, he enters ='or''=' as a username and
successfully logs in to the user page of the Web site. The We-are-secure login page is vulnerable to a
__________.
A. Land attack
B. Replay attack
C. Dictionary attack
D. SQL injection attack
Answer: D
26.Fill in the blank with the appropriate method name.
The__________ method is used to retrieve headers when the storage has been opened.
A. getHeader()
Answer: A
27.Fill in the blank with the appropriate class name.
The______ class is used to load files dynamically.
A. Zend_Loader
Answer: A
28.Which of the following methods of Zend_XmlRpc_Client can you use to instantiate a server proxy call?
A. call()
B. getLastResponse()
C. getProxy()
D. XMLResponse
Answer: C
29.You have given the following XML data in the tasks.XML file:
String Validation
Encryption
Now, you run the following PHP script:
load("tasks.xml");
$note = $objDOM->getElementsByTagName("note");
foreach( $note as $value )
{
$tasks = $value->getElementsByTagName("tasks");
$task = $tasks->item(0)->nodeValue;
$details = $value->getElementsByTagName("details");
$detail = $details->item(0)->nodeValue;
echo "$task :: $detail
";
}
?>
What should be displayed when this script is executed?
A. The contents of the whole XML document
B. The XML of every tasks and details nodes
C. The contents of every tasks and details nodes
D. The XML of whole XML document
Answer: C
30.You run the following PHP script:
What is the use of the mysql_real_escape_string() function in the above script.
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It can be used as a countermeasure against a SQL injection attack.
B. It escapes all special characters from strings $_POST["name"] and $_POST["password"] except ' and".
C. It escapes all special characters from strings $_POST["name"] and $_POST["password"].
D. It can be used to mitigate a cross site scripting attack.
Answer: A,C
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Real Oracle 1Z0-515 exam Q&As free download
1.A Full Rack Oracle Exadata Database Machine can contain 100 TB of disk space with high
performance.
How much user data should you conservatively estimate this configuration can hold?
A. 100 TB
B. 75 TB
C. 50 TB
D. 28 TB
E. 20 TB
Answer: A
2.Identify the action that you CANNOT perform using Database Resource Manager.
A. Define Consumer Groups.
B. Create rules to map sessions to Consumer Groups.
C. Define a Resource Plan.
D. Allocate individual CPUs to Consumer Groups.
Answer: B
3.You will be implementing a data warehouse for one of your customers. In your design process, which
index type is most likely to be used to improve the performance of some queries where the data is of low
cardinality?
A. Bitmap indexes
B. B*tree indexes
C. Reverse indexes
D. Invisible indexes
Answer: A
4.Identify the statement about ASM that is NOT true.
A. ASM is easier to manage than file systems.
B. ASM delivers the performance of raw partitions.
C. ASM is an extra cost option for Oracle databases.
D. ASM delivers automatic striping and mirroring.
Answer: B
5.For data warehousing, identify the benefits that would NOT be provided by the use of RAC.
A. Distribute workload across all the nodes.
B. Distribute workload to some of the nodes.
C. Provide parallel query servers.
D. Provide high availability for all the operations.
Answer: B
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performance.
How much user data should you conservatively estimate this configuration can hold?
A. 100 TB
B. 75 TB
C. 50 TB
D. 28 TB
E. 20 TB
Answer: A
2.Identify the action that you CANNOT perform using Database Resource Manager.
A. Define Consumer Groups.
B. Create rules to map sessions to Consumer Groups.
C. Define a Resource Plan.
D. Allocate individual CPUs to Consumer Groups.
Answer: B
3.You will be implementing a data warehouse for one of your customers. In your design process, which
index type is most likely to be used to improve the performance of some queries where the data is of low
cardinality?
A. Bitmap indexes
B. B*tree indexes
C. Reverse indexes
D. Invisible indexes
Answer: A
4.Identify the statement about ASM that is NOT true.
A. ASM is easier to manage than file systems.
B. ASM delivers the performance of raw partitions.
C. ASM is an extra cost option for Oracle databases.
D. ASM delivers automatic striping and mirroring.
Answer: B
5.For data warehousing, identify the benefits that would NOT be provided by the use of RAC.
A. Distribute workload across all the nodes.
B. Distribute workload to some of the nodes.
C. Provide parallel query servers.
D. Provide high availability for all the operations.
Answer: B
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Real Oracle 1Z0-518 exam Q&As free download
1.Which two options would you use to restrict the functionality provided by a responsibility? (Choose two.)
A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Answer: C, D
2.Which four transaction types or activities are affected by the "AR: Disable Receivable Activity Balancing
Segment" profile option? (Choose four.)
A. Invoices
B. Adjustments
C. Late charges
D. Debit memos
E. Credit memos
F. Discounts (both earned and unearned)
G. Activity applications (such as receipt write-off, short-tern debt, and claims Investigation)
Answer: B, C, F, G
3.Your client is Implementing Oracle Financials and Order Management. The AR team lead has heard
about the Tax Reporting Ledger and wants to know which subledger modules are used by the report.
Identify three applications that can be reported by the Tax Reporting Ledger.
A. Treasury
B. Payables
C. Purchasing
D. Receivables
E. General Ledger
F. Cash Management
G. Order Management
Answer: B, D, E
4.In order for supplementary data sources to be registered in Oracle Bill Presentment Architecture (BPA).
They must be interfaced with which Oracle Application?
A. Oracle Projects
B. Oracle Receivables
C. Oracle Service Contract
D. Oracle Order Management
Answer: B
5.Identify the Receivables activity type where you are unable to select the tax rate code source option of
invoice.
A. Adjustment
B. Earned discount
C. Unearned discount
D. Miscellaneous cash
Answer: D
6.ABC Corp. Has the following Organization Structure:
1) Legal Entity: A
2) Operating Units: B and C
3) Balancing Entities: 10, 20, and 30
Identify three correct statements regarding the Balancing Entity. (Choose three.)
A. Each Balancing Entity must balance within itself.
B. There can be multiple Balancing Entities within an Operating Unit.
C. Balancing Entity is the lowest postable unit in the Chart of Accounts.
D. Balancing Entities can be secured at the Operating Unit level through Security Rules.
Answer: A, B, E
7.A receipt of $2,000 Is received for an Invoice that has $1,500 as the amount due. The remittance advice
does not state a reason for the overpayment ldentify the receipt state that should be displayed;
A. Applied
B. Unapplied
C. On-account
D. Unidentified
E. Partially applied
Answer: B
8.Which three statements are true about accounting rules? (Choose three.)
A. Accounting rules enable you to defer revenue.
B. Accounting rules enable you to define fixed and variable rules to recognize revenue.
C. Accounting rules enable you to define the number of periods and percentage of total revenue that you
can record in each accounting period.
D. Accounting rules enable you to define the number of periods and amount of invoice that you can bill
your customer in each accounting period.
Answer: A, B, C
9.Your functional end users are perplexed by the contents of the Antolnvoice Execution report. They
needed expert guidance and cause to you. You look at the report and see that the Interface Lines section
of the report shows the following:
Selected: 9
Successfully Processed: 8
Failed Validation: 0
What is the likely reason for this?
A. An adjustment update of an old Invoice Is Included In this batch.
B. The General Ledger (GL) code combination 10 failed the cross validation rules.
C. A debit memo for an Invoice and the Invioice itself were submitted In the same batch tr\6 the debit
memo is selected first.
D. A credit memo for an Invoice and the invoice Itself are submitted In the same batch and the credit
memo Is selected first.
E. The GL code combination segment value for the cost center was valid in the prior calendar month but is
end-dated a day earlier.
Answer: D
10.Company ABC implementing Oracle User Management (OUM). It has decided to implement the Self
Service and Approvals access control layer.
What are the three self-service registration tasks an end user can perform? (Choose three.)
A. Reset passwords.
B. Obtain new user accounts.
C. Request deactivation of responsibility.
D. Request reports to be added to request set.
E. Request additional access to the applications.
Answer: A, B, E
11.Identify three true statements about defining actions In Oracle Alert. (Choose three.)
A. An alert can contain only one Action Set.
B. An alert can contain any number of Action Sets.
C. When multiple actions are defined they must be Included fn an Action Set.
D. Oracle Alert waits for user response before executing next action fn an Action Set.
E. When multiple actions are defined, they do not need to included in an Action Set.
F. Oracle Alert does not wait for user response before executing nest action In an Action Set.
Answer: B, C, F
12.Identify three setups In Oracle Receivables that control how discounts are calculated. (Choose three.)
A. Profile options
B. Payment terms
C. System options
D. Receipt classes
E. Customer profiles
Answer: A, B, C
13.Indentify three steps to be performed after defining a Flexfield structure, but before entering values.
(Choose three.)
A. Select the "Freeze Flexfield Defintion" check box.
B. Click the Compile button to build the Flexfield structure.
C. Save your changes before freezing the Flexfield definition.
D. Submit a concurrent request to build the Flexfield structure.
E. Do not save your changes before freezing the Flexfield definition.
Answer: A, B, C
14.Several fields are required during manual Invoice entry. Which are the the field required at the header
level?
A. date, customer, source, type, GL, date, legal, entity
B. date, legal entity, bill-to, source, type, class, remit-to
C. terms, date, bill-to, source, legal entity, type, remit-to
D. date, customer, source, type, General Ledger (GL) data, class
E. date, source, class, type, GL date, legal entity, bill-to, terms, remit-to
Answer: E
15.Identify two options that users can specify using Multi-Org preferences. (Choose two.)
A. set up the default Operating Unit
B. set up frequently accessed responsibilities
C. set up date, currency, and number formats
D. set up frequently accessed forms and webpages
E. set up the access to a limited list of Operating Units
Answer: A, E
16.Oracle Credit Management (OCM) uses lookups to help speed up data entry and increase accuracy.
Select two required lookups used by OCM. (Choose two.)
A. Rick code
B. Credit rating
C. Payment terms
D. Credit review type
F. Credit classification
Answer: D, E
17.Organizations have unique credit policies that aid for managing their collections and establishing
relationships with customers. Describe the two dimensions on which Oracle Credit Management is based.
(Choose two.)
A. various customer credit review types identified by collectors
B. various credit review types identified by collectors
C. various analysis of prior billing period and receipt history of customers
D. various analysis of customers on the basis of the aging their outstanding balances
Answer: A, B
18.In the Multi-Org model of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12, which organization type owns Bank
Account?
A. Ledger
B. Legal Entity
C. Operating Unit
D. Balancing Entity
E. Business Group
Answer: B
19.Which four transactions are improved by Autolvoice? (Choose four.)
A. Invoices
B. Deposits
C. Guarantees
D. Debit memos
E. Credit memos
F. On-account credits
Answer: A, D, E, F
20.There are several setup steps for receipts in Oracle Receivables; some are required whereas others
are optional. Which two setup steps are optional? (Choose two.)
A. Define receipt classes.
B. Define receipt methods.
C. Define receipt sources.
E. Define AntoCash rule sets.
F. Define application rule sets.
Answer: D, E
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A. creating an appropriate role
B. creating an appropriate group
C. constructing a new menu hierarchy
D. defining rules to exclude specific functions
Answer: C, D
2.Which four transaction types or activities are affected by the "AR: Disable Receivable Activity Balancing
Segment" profile option? (Choose four.)
A. Invoices
B. Adjustments
C. Late charges
D. Debit memos
E. Credit memos
F. Discounts (both earned and unearned)
G. Activity applications (such as receipt write-off, short-tern debt, and claims Investigation)
Answer: B, C, F, G
3.Your client is Implementing Oracle Financials and Order Management. The AR team lead has heard
about the Tax Reporting Ledger and wants to know which subledger modules are used by the report.
Identify three applications that can be reported by the Tax Reporting Ledger.
A. Treasury
B. Payables
C. Purchasing
D. Receivables
E. General Ledger
F. Cash Management
G. Order Management
Answer: B, D, E
4.In order for supplementary data sources to be registered in Oracle Bill Presentment Architecture (BPA).
They must be interfaced with which Oracle Application?
A. Oracle Projects
B. Oracle Receivables
C. Oracle Service Contract
D. Oracle Order Management
Answer: B
5.Identify the Receivables activity type where you are unable to select the tax rate code source option of
invoice.
A. Adjustment
B. Earned discount
C. Unearned discount
D. Miscellaneous cash
Answer: D
6.ABC Corp. Has the following Organization Structure:
1) Legal Entity: A
2) Operating Units: B and C
3) Balancing Entities: 10, 20, and 30
Identify three correct statements regarding the Balancing Entity. (Choose three.)
A. Each Balancing Entity must balance within itself.
B. There can be multiple Balancing Entities within an Operating Unit.
C. Balancing Entity is the lowest postable unit in the Chart of Accounts.
D. Balancing Entities can be secured at the Operating Unit level through Security Rules.
Answer: A, B, E
7.A receipt of $2,000 Is received for an Invoice that has $1,500 as the amount due. The remittance advice
does not state a reason for the overpayment ldentify the receipt state that should be displayed;
A. Applied
B. Unapplied
C. On-account
D. Unidentified
E. Partially applied
Answer: B
8.Which three statements are true about accounting rules? (Choose three.)
A. Accounting rules enable you to defer revenue.
B. Accounting rules enable you to define fixed and variable rules to recognize revenue.
C. Accounting rules enable you to define the number of periods and percentage of total revenue that you
can record in each accounting period.
D. Accounting rules enable you to define the number of periods and amount of invoice that you can bill
your customer in each accounting period.
Answer: A, B, C
9.Your functional end users are perplexed by the contents of the Antolnvoice Execution report. They
needed expert guidance and cause to you. You look at the report and see that the Interface Lines section
of the report shows the following:
Selected: 9
Successfully Processed: 8
Failed Validation: 0
What is the likely reason for this?
A. An adjustment update of an old Invoice Is Included In this batch.
B. The General Ledger (GL) code combination 10 failed the cross validation rules.
C. A debit memo for an Invoice and the Invioice itself were submitted In the same batch tr\6 the debit
memo is selected first.
D. A credit memo for an Invoice and the invoice Itself are submitted In the same batch and the credit
memo Is selected first.
E. The GL code combination segment value for the cost center was valid in the prior calendar month but is
end-dated a day earlier.
Answer: D
10.Company ABC implementing Oracle User Management (OUM). It has decided to implement the Self
Service and Approvals access control layer.
What are the three self-service registration tasks an end user can perform? (Choose three.)
A. Reset passwords.
B. Obtain new user accounts.
C. Request deactivation of responsibility.
D. Request reports to be added to request set.
E. Request additional access to the applications.
Answer: A, B, E
11.Identify three true statements about defining actions In Oracle Alert. (Choose three.)
A. An alert can contain only one Action Set.
B. An alert can contain any number of Action Sets.
C. When multiple actions are defined they must be Included fn an Action Set.
D. Oracle Alert waits for user response before executing next action fn an Action Set.
E. When multiple actions are defined, they do not need to included in an Action Set.
F. Oracle Alert does not wait for user response before executing nest action In an Action Set.
Answer: B, C, F
12.Identify three setups In Oracle Receivables that control how discounts are calculated. (Choose three.)
A. Profile options
B. Payment terms
C. System options
D. Receipt classes
E. Customer profiles
Answer: A, B, C
13.Indentify three steps to be performed after defining a Flexfield structure, but before entering values.
(Choose three.)
A. Select the "Freeze Flexfield Defintion" check box.
B. Click the Compile button to build the Flexfield structure.
C. Save your changes before freezing the Flexfield definition.
D. Submit a concurrent request to build the Flexfield structure.
E. Do not save your changes before freezing the Flexfield definition.
Answer: A, B, C
14.Several fields are required during manual Invoice entry. Which are the the field required at the header
level?
A. date, customer, source, type, GL, date, legal, entity
B. date, legal entity, bill-to, source, type, class, remit-to
C. terms, date, bill-to, source, legal entity, type, remit-to
D. date, customer, source, type, General Ledger (GL) data, class
E. date, source, class, type, GL date, legal entity, bill-to, terms, remit-to
Answer: E
15.Identify two options that users can specify using Multi-Org preferences. (Choose two.)
A. set up the default Operating Unit
B. set up frequently accessed responsibilities
C. set up date, currency, and number formats
D. set up frequently accessed forms and webpages
E. set up the access to a limited list of Operating Units
Answer: A, E
16.Oracle Credit Management (OCM) uses lookups to help speed up data entry and increase accuracy.
Select two required lookups used by OCM. (Choose two.)
A. Rick code
B. Credit rating
C. Payment terms
D. Credit review type
F. Credit classification
Answer: D, E
17.Organizations have unique credit policies that aid for managing their collections and establishing
relationships with customers. Describe the two dimensions on which Oracle Credit Management is based.
(Choose two.)
A. various customer credit review types identified by collectors
B. various credit review types identified by collectors
C. various analysis of prior billing period and receipt history of customers
D. various analysis of customers on the basis of the aging their outstanding balances
Answer: A, B
18.In the Multi-Org model of Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12, which organization type owns Bank
Account?
A. Ledger
B. Legal Entity
C. Operating Unit
D. Balancing Entity
E. Business Group
Answer: B
19.Which four transactions are improved by Autolvoice? (Choose four.)
A. Invoices
B. Deposits
C. Guarantees
D. Debit memos
E. Credit memos
F. On-account credits
Answer: A, D, E, F
20.There are several setup steps for receipts in Oracle Receivables; some are required whereas others
are optional. Which two setup steps are optional? (Choose two.)
A. Define receipt classes.
B. Define receipt methods.
C. Define receipt sources.
E. Define AntoCash rule sets.
F. Define application rule sets.
Answer: D, E
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Real Oracle 1Z0-520 exam Q&As free download
1.Oracle Daily Business Inteligence functions are secured using standard Oracle Apllications function
security.Choose three dashboards that are secured by the inventory Oganization.(choose three)
A. Inventory Management
B. Warehouse Management
C. Procurement Management
D.Commodity Supplier Management
E.Customer Fulfillment Management
Answer: A,B,E
2.Which three are valid setup options for purchasing document types?(choose three)
A. Archive On
B. Forward Method
C. Default Hierachy
D. Security Access Level
E. Can change Hierachy
F.Owner Cannot Approve
Answer: A,B,C
3.Select three statements that are ture regarding the clearing account.(choose three)
A. An asset clearing account can also be used as a project clearing account.
B. You can have a maximm of one asset clearing account per asset category.
C. For each payables document you create,you can have a separate cash clearing account.
D. You can use Cash in Transit report in cash management only if cash clearing account and cash
account are separate.
E. You use a separate cash account and cash acount to have visibility of the Cash in Transit on the
balance sheet.
Answer: B,C,E
4.In the Multi-Org model,which organization type is the highest level that impacts acounting?
A. Ledger
B. Operating Unit
C. Business Group
D. GRE/Legal Entity
D. Inventory Organization
Answer: A
5.What is the best way to set up this item?
Create blanket purchase agreements,a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers,and approved
supplier list entries.
A. Create contract purchase agreements,a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers,and
approved supplier list entries.
B. Do not create blanket or contract purchase agreements,a sourcing rule identifying all the possible
suppliers,and approved supplier list entries.
C. Create a blanket purchase agreement for only one supplier ,a sourcing rule for just that supplier,and an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.
D. Create a contract purchase agreement for only one supplier ,a sourcing rule for just that supplier,and
an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.
Answer:C
6.Company X has three Operating Units A,B and C.Each Operating Unit has the MO:Security Access
profile option called ABC Security assigned.Operating Unit A has both the MO: Operating Unit profile
option and the MO:Default Operating Unit profile option assigned to it.
Which statement is true?
A.Paul can create transactions for the A,B and C Operating Unit.
B. Ail transactions created by paul are automatically assigned to the Operations only against A.
C.Paul can report on data across A,B and C Operating Unit,but enter transactions only against A.
C.The profile option aid not include Operating Unit C due to an error by the system administrator.
D.The Payables responsibility is linked to the Operating Unit A the MO:Operating Unit profile option and
can cerate tansactions for that Operating Unit alone.
Answer: A
7.A global company uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 for its perations in the U.S and
Canada.The company is now adding Mexico to the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications.As
a system administrator,you need to set the MO:Operating Unit profile option for Mexico.Customer is not
using Multi-Org Acces Control.
You set the MO:Operating Unit profile option at the ____level.
A. Site
B. User
C. Application
D. Responsibility
Answer: D
8.Which three financial options can be defaulted when you enter a new supplier?(choose three)
A. Ship Via
B. Default Buyer
C. RFQ-Only Site
D. Bill-To Location
E. Supplier Classification
F. Payment Bank Account
Answer: A,C,D
9.Requisition Import groups all requisions with the same group code under the same requisition header.If
no group code is specified, Requisition Import groups requisitions according to five types of groups that
can be optionally passed to the Requisition Import proces.Identify them.(choose five)
A. Group by item
B. Group by price
C. Group by buyer
D. Group by UOM
E. Group by location
F. Group by supplier
G. Group by description
H. Group all requisition lines under one requisition header
Answer: A,C,E,F,H
10.Identify two features of an °i ndependenc ¡ ±val ue set. ( choose t w
A. There is a predefined list of values for a segment.
B. The values are stored in a product applications table.
C. The values are stored in an Oracle Application Object Library table.
D. You can enter a value other than those in the predefined fist of values.
Answer: A,C
11.Shared entities are used throughout Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12.Identify the four entities that
are shared.(choose four)
A. Ledger
B. Sales Force
C. Unit of Measure
D. Invoice Sources
E. Oracle Application Object Library(AOL)
Answer: A,B,C,E
12.Consider the following scenerio for inventory item B.
1) Standard Cost 10
2) Purchase Order Liner Quantity,100:Purchase Order Line Price: 12.
3) Match Approval Level Three-Way Matching:Receipt Routing:Direct Delivery.
4) Receipt Quantity:40
5) Invoice Price: 14:Invoiced Quantity:20
Which option describes the effect on different accounts correctly?
A. Debit Material Account 480:Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account 240:Debit invoice Price Variance
Account 40:Debit Purchase Price Variance Account 0:Credit AP Liability Account 280.
B. Debit Material Account 400:Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account 240:Debit invoice Price Variance
Account 40:Debit Purchase Price Variance Account 80:Credit AP Liability Account 280.
C. Debit Material Account 400:Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account 240:Debit invoice Price Variance
Account 80:Debit Purchase Price Variance Account 40:Credit AP Liability Account 280.
D. Credit Material Account 400:Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account 240: Credit invoice Price Variance
Account 40: Credit Purchase Price Variance Account 80: Debit AP Liability Account 280.
Answer: B
13.When implementing Purchase at FGH Corp,you notice several administrative inefficiencies due to a
poorly maintained supplier list.Identify three ineffciences.(choose three)
A. Entering suppliers twice
B. Issuing specific invoices
C. Generating inaccurate returns
D. Generating inaccurate reciepts
E. Generating accurate supplier reports
F. Issing more payments than necessary
G. Issuing more purchase orders than necessary
Answer: A,F,G
14.Consider the following scenerio for inventory item B:
1)Standard Cost 12 Purchase Order Line Price: 12, Purchase Order Liner Quantity,10
2)Reciept Routing Direct Delivery
You created a reciept of 8 units for item A.Which option correctly describes the effect on different
accounts?
A. Debit Material Account 80:Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account 96:Debit invoice Price Variance
Account 16.No effect on Purchase Price Variance Account.
B. Debit Material Account 80:Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account 96: No effect on Purchase Price
Variance Account. Debit invoice Price Variance Account 16.
C. Credit Material Account 80:Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account 80: No effect on Purchase Price
Variance Account.Credit invoice Price Variance Account 16.
D. Debit Material Account 96:Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account 96: No effect on Purchase Price
Variance Account. Credit invoice Price Variance Account 16.
Answer: A
15.While defining Approval Groups.which three objects can you define authorization rules for?(choose
three)
A. Buyer
B. Location
C. Commodity
D. Item Category
E. Account Range
F. Document Account
Answer: B,D,E
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security.Choose three dashboards that are secured by the inventory Oganization.(choose three)
A. Inventory Management
B. Warehouse Management
C. Procurement Management
D.Commodity Supplier Management
E.Customer Fulfillment Management
Answer: A,B,E
2.Which three are valid setup options for purchasing document types?(choose three)
A. Archive On
B. Forward Method
C. Default Hierachy
D. Security Access Level
E. Can change Hierachy
F.Owner Cannot Approve
Answer: A,B,C
3.Select three statements that are ture regarding the clearing account.(choose three)
A. An asset clearing account can also be used as a project clearing account.
B. You can have a maximm of one asset clearing account per asset category.
C. For each payables document you create,you can have a separate cash clearing account.
D. You can use Cash in Transit report in cash management only if cash clearing account and cash
account are separate.
E. You use a separate cash account and cash acount to have visibility of the Cash in Transit on the
balance sheet.
Answer: B,C,E
4.In the Multi-Org model,which organization type is the highest level that impacts acounting?
A. Ledger
B. Operating Unit
C. Business Group
D. GRE/Legal Entity
D. Inventory Organization
Answer: A
5.What is the best way to set up this item?
Create blanket purchase agreements,a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers,and approved
supplier list entries.
A. Create contract purchase agreements,a sourcing rule identifying all the possible suppliers,and
approved supplier list entries.
B. Do not create blanket or contract purchase agreements,a sourcing rule identifying all the possible
suppliers,and approved supplier list entries.
C. Create a blanket purchase agreement for only one supplier ,a sourcing rule for just that supplier,and an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.
D. Create a contract purchase agreement for only one supplier ,a sourcing rule for just that supplier,and
an approved supplier list entry for that supplier.
Answer:C
6.Company X has three Operating Units A,B and C.Each Operating Unit has the MO:Security Access
profile option called ABC Security assigned.Operating Unit A has both the MO: Operating Unit profile
option and the MO:Default Operating Unit profile option assigned to it.
Which statement is true?
A.Paul can create transactions for the A,B and C Operating Unit.
B. Ail transactions created by paul are automatically assigned to the Operations only against A.
C.Paul can report on data across A,B and C Operating Unit,but enter transactions only against A.
C.The profile option aid not include Operating Unit C due to an error by the system administrator.
D.The Payables responsibility is linked to the Operating Unit A the MO:Operating Unit profile option and
can cerate tansactions for that Operating Unit alone.
Answer: A
7.A global company uses Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 for its perations in the U.S and
Canada.The company is now adding Mexico to the Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12 Applications.As
a system administrator,you need to set the MO:Operating Unit profile option for Mexico.Customer is not
using Multi-Org Acces Control.
You set the MO:Operating Unit profile option at the ____level.
A. Site
B. User
C. Application
D. Responsibility
Answer: D
8.Which three financial options can be defaulted when you enter a new supplier?(choose three)
A. Ship Via
B. Default Buyer
C. RFQ-Only Site
D. Bill-To Location
E. Supplier Classification
F. Payment Bank Account
Answer: A,C,D
9.Requisition Import groups all requisions with the same group code under the same requisition header.If
no group code is specified, Requisition Import groups requisitions according to five types of groups that
can be optionally passed to the Requisition Import proces.Identify them.(choose five)
A. Group by item
B. Group by price
C. Group by buyer
D. Group by UOM
E. Group by location
F. Group by supplier
G. Group by description
H. Group all requisition lines under one requisition header
Answer: A,C,E,F,H
10.Identify two features of an °i ndependenc ¡ ±val ue set. ( choose t w
A. There is a predefined list of values for a segment.
B. The values are stored in a product applications table.
C. The values are stored in an Oracle Application Object Library table.
D. You can enter a value other than those in the predefined fist of values.
Answer: A,C
11.Shared entities are used throughout Oracle E-Business Suite Release 12.Identify the four entities that
are shared.(choose four)
A. Ledger
B. Sales Force
C. Unit of Measure
D. Invoice Sources
E. Oracle Application Object Library(AOL)
Answer: A,B,C,E
12.Consider the following scenerio for inventory item B.
1) Standard Cost 10
2) Purchase Order Liner Quantity,100:Purchase Order Line Price: 12.
3) Match Approval Level Three-Way Matching:Receipt Routing:Direct Delivery.
4) Receipt Quantity:40
5) Invoice Price: 14:Invoiced Quantity:20
Which option describes the effect on different accounts correctly?
A. Debit Material Account 480:Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account 240:Debit invoice Price Variance
Account 40:Debit Purchase Price Variance Account 0:Credit AP Liability Account 280.
B. Debit Material Account 400:Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account 240:Debit invoice Price Variance
Account 40:Debit Purchase Price Variance Account 80:Credit AP Liability Account 280.
C. Debit Material Account 400:Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account 240:Debit invoice Price Variance
Account 80:Debit Purchase Price Variance Account 40:Credit AP Liability Account 280.
D. Credit Material Account 400:Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account 240: Credit invoice Price Variance
Account 40: Credit Purchase Price Variance Account 80: Debit AP Liability Account 280.
Answer: B
13.When implementing Purchase at FGH Corp,you notice several administrative inefficiencies due to a
poorly maintained supplier list.Identify three ineffciences.(choose three)
A. Entering suppliers twice
B. Issuing specific invoices
C. Generating inaccurate returns
D. Generating inaccurate reciepts
E. Generating accurate supplier reports
F. Issing more payments than necessary
G. Issuing more purchase orders than necessary
Answer: A,F,G
14.Consider the following scenerio for inventory item B:
1)Standard Cost 12 Purchase Order Line Price: 12, Purchase Order Liner Quantity,10
2)Reciept Routing Direct Delivery
You created a reciept of 8 units for item A.Which option correctly describes the effect on different
accounts?
A. Debit Material Account 80:Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account 96:Debit invoice Price Variance
Account 16.No effect on Purchase Price Variance Account.
B. Debit Material Account 80:Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account 96: No effect on Purchase Price
Variance Account. Debit invoice Price Variance Account 16.
C. Credit Material Account 80:Debit Inventory AP Accrual Account 80: No effect on Purchase Price
Variance Account.Credit invoice Price Variance Account 16.
D. Debit Material Account 96:Credit Inventory AP Accrual Account 96: No effect on Purchase Price
Variance Account. Credit invoice Price Variance Account 16.
Answer: A
15.While defining Approval Groups.which three objects can you define authorization rules for?(choose
three)
A. Buyer
B. Location
C. Commodity
D. Item Category
E. Account Range
F. Document Account
Answer: B,D,E
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Real Avaya 6005.1 exam Q&As free download
1.A customer is preparing to install software on the CPMG Server and would like to display the boot
sequence on the system terminal for the BIOS ROM, and Operating System Which port on the CPMG
services this information?
A. Frontface TTY Port 2
B. Frontface TTY Port 1
C. Backplane 3-port connection TTY Port 0
D. Frontface Embedded LAN (ELAN) port0
Answer: B
2.A customer purchased a new Communication Server 1000E SA system with five media gateways which
include MG 1: CPMG (Call Server, Signaling Server, Media Gateway Controller) MG2: Media Gateway
Controller MG3: Media Gateway Controller MG4: Media Gateway Controller MG5: Media Gateway
Controller Which statement is true regarding the configuration of Media Gateway 1?
A. The Call Server and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address
B. The Call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address.
C. The Call Server and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
D. The call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
Answer: C
3.A technician is upgrading an exiting option 11C Rls. 5.5 system to a Communication Server (CS) 1000E
Rls. 7.0 standard Availability with a single Media Gateway 1000E chasses . A CPMG, Co-Resident Server
card is being deployed during the upgrade. This is a stand-alone system that is not part of a larger
network so the CPMG will act as its own Primary Security Server Which supplication deployment
combination will be deployed on the CPMG server for this customer?
A. CS+SS+EM
B. CS+SS+SIPL
C. CS+SS
D. CS+SS+NRS
Answer: A
4.A technician has previously scheduled Subscriber Manager to build a new telephone account for the
subscriber John Smith at midnight. However, the next morning it is discovered an account has not been
provisioned What should be done next?
A. Look at ss_common logs in Linux base
B. Within UCM, look at OAM logs under Tools->logs
C. Within UCM, look at Security Event logs under Tools-> logs
D. Look at cs_console logs in Linux base
Answer: B
5.A Customer has deployed a Communication Server000 Rls. 7.0 system at their site Their states
department is expanding and has asked that five new telephones be added with the same capabilities as
the existing telephones in the department Which programming command should be used to complete this
task?
A. Move to DN
B. Move form TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D
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sequence on the system terminal for the BIOS ROM, and Operating System Which port on the CPMG
services this information?
A. Frontface TTY Port 2
B. Frontface TTY Port 1
C. Backplane 3-port connection TTY Port 0
D. Frontface Embedded LAN (ELAN) port0
Answer: B
2.A customer purchased a new Communication Server 1000E SA system with five media gateways which
include MG 1: CPMG (Call Server, Signaling Server, Media Gateway Controller) MG2: Media Gateway
Controller MG3: Media Gateway Controller MG4: Media Gateway Controller MG5: Media Gateway
Controller Which statement is true regarding the configuration of Media Gateway 1?
A. The Call Server and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address
B. The Call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway share the same ELAN IP address.
C. The Call Server and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
D. The call Server, Signaling Server, and Media Gateway have different IP addresses
Answer: C
3.A technician is upgrading an exiting option 11C Rls. 5.5 system to a Communication Server (CS) 1000E
Rls. 7.0 standard Availability with a single Media Gateway 1000E chasses . A CPMG, Co-Resident Server
card is being deployed during the upgrade. This is a stand-alone system that is not part of a larger
network so the CPMG will act as its own Primary Security Server Which supplication deployment
combination will be deployed on the CPMG server for this customer?
A. CS+SS+EM
B. CS+SS+SIPL
C. CS+SS
D. CS+SS+NRS
Answer: A
4.A technician has previously scheduled Subscriber Manager to build a new telephone account for the
subscriber John Smith at midnight. However, the next morning it is discovered an account has not been
provisioned What should be done next?
A. Look at ss_common logs in Linux base
B. Within UCM, look at OAM logs under Tools->logs
C. Within UCM, look at Security Event logs under Tools-> logs
D. Look at cs_console logs in Linux base
Answer: B
5.A Customer has deployed a Communication Server000 Rls. 7.0 system at their site Their states
department is expanding and has asked that five new telephones be added with the same capabilities as
the existing telephones in the department Which programming command should be used to complete this
task?
A. Move to DN
B. Move form TN
C. Copy from DN
D. Copy from TN
Answer: D
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Real Avaya 6006.1 (Avaya Aura(TM) Communication Manager (R5.2.1) Implementation Exam) exam Q&As free download
1.What are two ways of obtaining the RFA Module ID (MID) and System ID (SID)? (Choose two.)
A. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command ®st at usli cens-V ¯
B. From the CM SAT issue the command ®li st confi gur ati on soft war -versions ¯
C. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command ¯ syst a
D. From the CM SAT issue the command display system-parameters customer-options ¯
Answer: A,D
2.At a new deployment the customer has a total of 2,000 subscribers at their main location. They do not
need redundancy in their solution Which Media ServerMedia Gateway combination should be used for
this deployment?
A. S8800 Simplex with G450
B. S8800D with G450
C. S8300D with G430
D. S8800 Duplex with G650
Answer: A
3.Which three settings need to be configured on a Layer 2 device? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. port speed
C. IP address
D. default gateway
F. routing interface
Answer: B,C ,D
4.Which two statements about the installing and cabling of the Media Gateway G650 are true?(Choose
two.)
A. Mount the A carrier at the bother of the rack
B. Mount the A carnet in the uppermost position in the rack
C. In a multiple Media Gateway GB50 configuration, the G650s an be allocated in different racks if long
TDMLAN cables are used to interconnect the 850s.
D. In a multiple Media Gateway G650 configuration put the G65s in the rack with no vertical pace between
them.
Answer: A,D
5.Before IPSI cards can become active on a new Communication Manager system, which screen must be
accessed to enable IPSI control of the Port Networks?
A. system-parameters ip-options
B. system-parameters ipsi-option
C. system-parameters port-networks
D. system-parameters ipserver-interface
Answer: D
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A. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command ®st at usli cens-V ¯
B. From the CM SAT issue the command ®li st confi gur ati on soft war -versions ¯
C. From the CM Linux prompt issue the command ¯ syst a
D. From the CM SAT issue the command display system-parameters customer-options ¯
Answer: A,D
2.At a new deployment the customer has a total of 2,000 subscribers at their main location. They do not
need redundancy in their solution Which Media ServerMedia Gateway combination should be used for
this deployment?
A. S8800 Simplex with G450
B. S8800D with G450
C. S8300D with G430
D. S8800 Duplex with G650
Answer: A
3.Which three settings need to be configured on a Layer 2 device? (Choose three.)
A. RIP
B. port speed
C. IP address
D. default gateway
F. routing interface
Answer: B,C ,D
4.Which two statements about the installing and cabling of the Media Gateway G650 are true?(Choose
two.)
A. Mount the A carrier at the bother of the rack
B. Mount the A carnet in the uppermost position in the rack
C. In a multiple Media Gateway GB50 configuration, the G650s an be allocated in different racks if long
TDMLAN cables are used to interconnect the 850s.
D. In a multiple Media Gateway G650 configuration put the G65s in the rack with no vertical pace between
them.
Answer: A,D
5.Before IPSI cards can become active on a new Communication Manager system, which screen must be
accessed to enable IPSI control of the Port Networks?
A. system-parameters ip-options
B. system-parameters ipsi-option
C. system-parameters port-networks
D. system-parameters ipserver-interface
Answer: D
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Real Oracle 1Z0-528 (IIBM Lotus XPages Technical Sales Mastery Test v1) exam Q&As free download
1.Andrew works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses Oracle 11g as the
database server. Andrew has been assigned the task to apply a security feature to the database of the
organization to protect the database from insiders. This security feature should also mitigate several
security risks. Which of the following security features should he adopt to accomplish the task?
A. Database Vault
B. Advanced Security Option
C. Enterprise Data Masking Pack
D. Audit Vault
Answer: D
2.Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Data Masking Pack?
A. Secure High Performance Mask Execution
B. Comprehensive and Extensible Mask Library
C. Automated patching for Oracle products and the operating system
D. Sophisticated Masking Techniques
Answer: C
3.You are a Database Administrator in Dolliver Inc. Oracle 11g is installed as the database server in the
company. You want to protect data from privileged users through some preventive controls and also
secure the database transparently. Which of the following security options will you adopt to accomplish
the task?
A. Audit Vault
B. Database Vault
C. Advanced Security
D. Enterprise Manager Data Masking Pack
Answer: B
4.You have a system installed with Oracle 11g. You are concerned about the security of the database
instances in your system. You plan to use Oracle Database Vault to create several components to
manage the security of the database instances. Which of the following components can be created using
Oracle Database Vault? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Factors
B. Command rules
C. Realms
D. RMAN
Answer: A,B,C
5.Sam works as a Database Administrator for uCertify Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. Sam wants to adopt a security feature on the database that enforces the security rules,
regardless of the way the data is accessed. Which of the following security features should he adopt to
accomplish the task?
A. Real Application Cluster (RAC)
B. Label Security
C. Enhanced security features with execution context
D. Virtual Private Database (VPD)
Answer: D
6.Andrew works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses Oracle 11g as the
database server and deals with the development of various database applications. During such
developments, production data is copied into other non-production environments. This leads to several
confidential risks. Andrew has been assigned the task to minimize the risk of handling such sensitive
information. Which pack of Enterprise Manager should he adopt to accomplish the task?
A. Oracle Diagnostic Pack
B. Oracle Data Masking Pack
C. Oracle Change Management Pack
D. Oracle Configuration Management Pack
Answer: B
7.Which of the following components of Oracle Database Vault is a Java application that is built on top of
the Oracle Database Vault PL/SQL application programming interfaces (API)?
A. Oracle Database Vault Reporting and Monitoring Tools
B. Oracle Database Vault Administrator (DVA)
C. Oracle Database Vault DVSYS and DVF Schemas
D. Oracle Database Vault Access Control Components
Answer: B
8.Which of the following are the advantages of Oracle Database Vault?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It disables the separation of duty.
B. It controls access to database and application data by highly privileged users.
C. It imposes multi-factor authorization by the use of flexible business rules.
D. It enables the separation of duty.
Answer: B,C,D
9.Which method should be adopted to retrieve all those rows whose sensitive columns have a null value
and which are restricted by Virtual Private Database security?
A. Column masking
B. Access Control List
C. Transparent Tablespace Encryption
D. Transparent Data Encryption
Answer: A
10.David works as a Database Administrator for Gentech Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. David wants to adapt such a security option that will provide no application changes to
the database, built-in key management, and high performance to the database. Which security option
should he adopt to accomplish the task?
A. Database Vault
B. Label Security
C. Audit Vault
D. Advanced Security Option
Answer: D
11.Which of the following options employs labeling concepts used by government and defense
organizations to protect sensitive information and to provide data separation?
A. Oracle Database Vault Security
B. Oracle Advanced Security
C. Oracle Audit Vault Security
D. Oracle Label Security
Answer: D
12.Sam works as a Database Administrator for Gentech Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. Sam wants to protect the company's data by encrypting the physical data files created
on the operating system. Which of the following types of encryption should he use to accomplish the task?
A. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for securefiles
B. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for column
C. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for tablespace
D. Network encryption
Answer: C
13.You work as a Database Administrator for uCertify Inc. The company uses Oracle 11g on its database
server. The server contains a database named "Company_Project_Details". The database is shared
among multiple departments of the company for regular updation. Looking at the security issues of the
database, you have been assigned the task to apply some security solution to the database.
To accomplish the task, you plan to apply Database Label Security on this database. Which of the
following components of the Database Label Security should you apply in order to secure this database?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Levels
B. Source database
C. Compartments
D. Groups
Answer: A,C,D
14.David works as a Database Administrator for uCertify Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. David wants to adopt security options so as to protect the database of the company.
Which of the following security options should he adopt to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Database Vault
B. Chain of trust
C. Audit Vault
D. Advanced Security Option
Answer: A,C,D
15.You have a system installed with Oracle 11g. You are concerned about the security of the database
instances in your system. You plan to use Oracle Database Vault to create several components to
manage the security of the database instances. Which of the following components can be created using
Oracle Database Vault?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. RMAN
B. Realms
C. Factors
D. Command rules
Answer: B,C,D
database server. Andrew has been assigned the task to apply a security feature to the database of the
organization to protect the database from insiders. This security feature should also mitigate several
security risks. Which of the following security features should he adopt to accomplish the task?
A. Database Vault
B. Advanced Security Option
C. Enterprise Data Masking Pack
D. Audit Vault
Answer: D
2.Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Data Masking Pack?
A. Secure High Performance Mask Execution
B. Comprehensive and Extensible Mask Library
C. Automated patching for Oracle products and the operating system
D. Sophisticated Masking Techniques
Answer: C
3.You are a Database Administrator in Dolliver Inc. Oracle 11g is installed as the database server in the
company. You want to protect data from privileged users through some preventive controls and also
secure the database transparently. Which of the following security options will you adopt to accomplish
the task?
A. Audit Vault
B. Database Vault
C. Advanced Security
D. Enterprise Manager Data Masking Pack
Answer: B
4.You have a system installed with Oracle 11g. You are concerned about the security of the database
instances in your system. You plan to use Oracle Database Vault to create several components to
manage the security of the database instances. Which of the following components can be created using
Oracle Database Vault? Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Factors
B. Command rules
C. Realms
D. RMAN
Answer: A,B,C
5.Sam works as a Database Administrator for uCertify Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. Sam wants to adopt a security feature on the database that enforces the security rules,
regardless of the way the data is accessed. Which of the following security features should he adopt to
accomplish the task?
A. Real Application Cluster (RAC)
B. Label Security
C. Enhanced security features with execution context
D. Virtual Private Database (VPD)
Answer: D
6.Andrew works as a Database Administrator for Tech Mart Inc. The company uses Oracle 11g as the
database server and deals with the development of various database applications. During such
developments, production data is copied into other non-production environments. This leads to several
confidential risks. Andrew has been assigned the task to minimize the risk of handling such sensitive
information. Which pack of Enterprise Manager should he adopt to accomplish the task?
A. Oracle Diagnostic Pack
B. Oracle Data Masking Pack
C. Oracle Change Management Pack
D. Oracle Configuration Management Pack
Answer: B
7.Which of the following components of Oracle Database Vault is a Java application that is built on top of
the Oracle Database Vault PL/SQL application programming interfaces (API)?
A. Oracle Database Vault Reporting and Monitoring Tools
B. Oracle Database Vault Administrator (DVA)
C. Oracle Database Vault DVSYS and DVF Schemas
D. Oracle Database Vault Access Control Components
Answer: B
8.Which of the following are the advantages of Oracle Database Vault?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. It disables the separation of duty.
B. It controls access to database and application data by highly privileged users.
C. It imposes multi-factor authorization by the use of flexible business rules.
D. It enables the separation of duty.
Answer: B,C,D
9.Which method should be adopted to retrieve all those rows whose sensitive columns have a null value
and which are restricted by Virtual Private Database security?
A. Column masking
B. Access Control List
C. Transparent Tablespace Encryption
D. Transparent Data Encryption
Answer: A
10.David works as a Database Administrator for Gentech Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. David wants to adapt such a security option that will provide no application changes to
the database, built-in key management, and high performance to the database. Which security option
should he adopt to accomplish the task?
A. Database Vault
B. Label Security
C. Audit Vault
D. Advanced Security Option
Answer: D
11.Which of the following options employs labeling concepts used by government and defense
organizations to protect sensitive information and to provide data separation?
A. Oracle Database Vault Security
B. Oracle Advanced Security
C. Oracle Audit Vault Security
D. Oracle Label Security
Answer: D
12.Sam works as a Database Administrator for Gentech Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. Sam wants to protect the company's data by encrypting the physical data files created
on the operating system. Which of the following types of encryption should he use to accomplish the task?
A. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for securefiles
B. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for column
C. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE) for tablespace
D. Network encryption
Answer: C
13.You work as a Database Administrator for uCertify Inc. The company uses Oracle 11g on its database
server. The server contains a database named "Company_Project_Details". The database is shared
among multiple departments of the company for regular updation. Looking at the security issues of the
database, you have been assigned the task to apply some security solution to the database.
To accomplish the task, you plan to apply Database Label Security on this database. Which of the
following components of the Database Label Security should you apply in order to secure this database?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Levels
B. Source database
C. Compartments
D. Groups
Answer: A,C,D
14.David works as a Database Administrator for uCertify Inc. The company is using Oracle 11g as the
database server. David wants to adopt security options so as to protect the database of the company.
Which of the following security options should he adopt to accomplish the task?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. Database Vault
B. Chain of trust
C. Audit Vault
D. Advanced Security Option
Answer: A,C,D
15.You have a system installed with Oracle 11g. You are concerned about the security of the database
instances in your system. You plan to use Oracle Database Vault to create several components to
manage the security of the database instances. Which of the following components can be created using
Oracle Database Vault?
Each correct answer represents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.
A. RMAN
B. Realms
C. Factors
D. Command rules
Answer: B,C,D
Real Symantec ASC-029 (ASC Enterprise Security 2010) exam Q&As free download
1.When defining location switching criteria, which two can be used? (Select two.)
A. MAC address
B. Wins Server address
C. host name
D. NIC description
E. OS type
Answer: B, D
2.When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A. likelihood of occurrence
B. order of occurrence
C. level of inconvenience to the customer
D. impact to the project
E. visibility to senior management
Answer: A, D
3.An administrator has deployed LAN enforcer within the network and enabled 802.lx on all switch ports.
How can the administrator ensure that printers directly connected to the switch are still accessible, and
also prevent computers bypassing LAN enforcement should they be connected to the printer ¯ s net wor k
outlet?
A. install Symantec Endpoint Protection on the printers
B. add the MAC addresses of the printers to the Trusted Hosts list in the advanced settings of the
Enforcer Group properties
C. log on to the command line of the enforcer, at the command line enter mab enable
D. log on to the command line of the enforcer, at the command line enter mac and the list of printer MAC
addresses
Answer: C
4.With an 802.lx enabled switch, the SNAC client communicates with the switch at which layer of the OSI
reference model for EAP authentication?
A. Layer 1 (Physical Layer)
B. Layer 2 (Data Link Layer)
C. Layer 3 (Network Layer)
D. Layer 4 (Transport Layer)
Answer: B
5.At an administrator ¯ sfi r st meeti ng wit h a cust o mer t heyr eali zet hat t hei r cust o mer i s expecti ngt he
product to do a certain function that the administrator is sure it cannot accomplish. What should the
administrator ¯ sr esponse be?
A. call the account team
B. escalate to the administrator ¯ s manager
C. provide alternative solutions
D. call the product manager
Answer: C
A. MAC address
B. Wins Server address
C. host name
D. NIC description
E. OS type
Answer: B, D
2.When identifying risks, an administrator should prioritize them according to what? (Select two.)
A. likelihood of occurrence
B. order of occurrence
C. level of inconvenience to the customer
D. impact to the project
E. visibility to senior management
Answer: A, D
3.An administrator has deployed LAN enforcer within the network and enabled 802.lx on all switch ports.
How can the administrator ensure that printers directly connected to the switch are still accessible, and
also prevent computers bypassing LAN enforcement should they be connected to the printer ¯ s net wor k
outlet?
A. install Symantec Endpoint Protection on the printers
B. add the MAC addresses of the printers to the Trusted Hosts list in the advanced settings of the
Enforcer Group properties
C. log on to the command line of the enforcer, at the command line enter mab enable
D. log on to the command line of the enforcer, at the command line enter mac and the list of printer MAC
addresses
Answer: C
4.With an 802.lx enabled switch, the SNAC client communicates with the switch at which layer of the OSI
reference model for EAP authentication?
A. Layer 1 (Physical Layer)
B. Layer 2 (Data Link Layer)
C. Layer 3 (Network Layer)
D. Layer 4 (Transport Layer)
Answer: B
5.At an administrator ¯ sfi r st meeti ng wit h a cust o mer t heyr eali zet hat t hei r cust o mer i s expecti ngt he
product to do a certain function that the administrator is sure it cannot accomplish. What should the
administrator ¯ sr esponse be?
A. call the account team
B. escalate to the administrator ¯ s manager
C. provide alternative solutions
D. call the product manager
Answer: C
Real ASC-090 (ASC IT Compliance 2010) exam Q&As free download
Question: 1
A Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) administrator has written a simple Perl
script to convert HEX format to a dotted decimal number to aid forensic analysis of attack
packets recorded by the Network Intrusion Detection system. They have used this script in a
user action. However, the user action is failing. What is the problem?
A. Only shell scripts are supported for custom user actions.
B. Perl interpreter is not installed on the Archive Server.
C. Only Java scripts are supported for custom user action.
D. Perl interpreter is not installed on the SSIM client machine.
Answer: D
Question: 2
A company is receiving "disk full" errors on the volume hosting the RMS Information server
database. They are running native RMS queries and saving the historical reports. What is the
process for deleting outdated RMS historical data sets?
A. from the Control Compliance Suite Console, under the System > General > Data Purge
menu, configure the Purge Settings to run a data purge job
B. from the RMS console, run an RMS Query using the "Show Advanced Data Sources"
option, and use Active Admin to delete historical data
C. on the Information server, stop the BVProcessManager Service, then stop and restart the
SQL Server Service, then restart the BVProcessManager Service
D. on the Information server, stop all RMS Services, and then use the Microsoft commandline
tool "OSQL.EXE" to purge the "QUERY_RESULTS" table
Answer: B
Question: 3
In Control Compliance Suite (CCS) Reporting and Analytics, where do administrators add
content for new regulations not already included?
A. from the CCS Console, in "Manage > Polices" select "New Regulation"
B. in Content Studio, choose "Mandates", right-click, and then choose "New Regulation"
C. New regulations cannot be added to Reporting and Analytics.
D. from a SQL script, write an INSERT statement to create the new content on the SQL
Database Server
Answer: B
Question: 4
An administrator sees the following in the agent log:
ERROR [Logging] com.symantec.management.security.
HostnameVerificationFailureException SESA Agent Symc_ConfigProvider: Failed to
bootstrap to primary management server https:
What are two reasons for this? (Select two.)
A. The name resolution is not working.
B. Agent failed to download the SSL certificate.
C. There is a hostname mismatch with the SSL certificate.
D. Another host with same hostname is already registered.
E. Bootstrapping is disabled on the Information Manager.
Answer: A, E
Question: 5
A company reports that Windows Data Collection jobs using the RMS data collector never
complete. UNIX Data Collection jobs complete normally. The administrator suspects that one
of the Slave Query Engines might be failing to respond. Which troubleshooting step should be
used to determine which Slave Query Engine might be hanging?
A. from the RMS Console, log in under the Data Processor Service Account, and check the
"Task Status" screen
B. on the Information server, review the Application log
C. in bv-Config, check the "Query Engine Diagnostics- Master" for Slave Query Engine job
statuses
D. in the Control Compliance Suite Console, on the Settings > System Topology Menu,
Choose "Monitor System Jobs"
Answer: C
Question: 6
In the Control Compliance Suite Asset System, "Asset Custodian" is an example of an asset
_____?
A. tag
B. permission
C. property
D. view
Answer: C
Question: 7
A policy has been submitted for review. Reviewers have made change requests to the policy,
and the policy review deadline has passed. What is the status of the policy?
A. In Review
B. Pending Approval
C. Draft
D. Approved
Answer: C
A Symantec Security Information Manager (SSIM) administrator has written a simple Perl
script to convert HEX format to a dotted decimal number to aid forensic analysis of attack
packets recorded by the Network Intrusion Detection system. They have used this script in a
user action. However, the user action is failing. What is the problem?
A. Only shell scripts are supported for custom user actions.
B. Perl interpreter is not installed on the Archive Server.
C. Only Java scripts are supported for custom user action.
D. Perl interpreter is not installed on the SSIM client machine.
Answer: D
Question: 2
A company is receiving "disk full" errors on the volume hosting the RMS Information server
database. They are running native RMS queries and saving the historical reports. What is the
process for deleting outdated RMS historical data sets?
A. from the Control Compliance Suite Console, under the System > General > Data Purge
menu, configure the Purge Settings to run a data purge job
B. from the RMS console, run an RMS Query using the "Show Advanced Data Sources"
option, and use Active Admin to delete historical data
C. on the Information server, stop the BVProcessManager Service, then stop and restart the
SQL Server Service, then restart the BVProcessManager Service
D. on the Information server, stop all RMS Services, and then use the Microsoft commandline
tool "OSQL.EXE" to purge the "QUERY_RESULTS" table
Answer: B
Question: 3
In Control Compliance Suite (CCS) Reporting and Analytics, where do administrators add
content for new regulations not already included?
A. from the CCS Console, in "Manage > Polices" select "New Regulation"
B. in Content Studio, choose "Mandates", right-click, and then choose "New Regulation"
C. New regulations cannot be added to Reporting and Analytics.
D. from a SQL script, write an INSERT statement to create the new content on the SQL
Database Server
Answer: B
Question: 4
An administrator sees the following in the agent log:
ERROR [Logging] com.symantec.management.security.
HostnameVerificationFailureException SESA Agent Symc_ConfigProvider: Failed to
bootstrap to primary management server https:
What are two reasons for this? (Select two.)
A. The name resolution is not working.
B. Agent failed to download the SSL certificate.
C. There is a hostname mismatch with the SSL certificate.
D. Another host with same hostname is already registered.
E. Bootstrapping is disabled on the Information Manager.
Answer: A, E
Question: 5
A company reports that Windows Data Collection jobs using the RMS data collector never
complete. UNIX Data Collection jobs complete normally. The administrator suspects that one
of the Slave Query Engines might be failing to respond. Which troubleshooting step should be
used to determine which Slave Query Engine might be hanging?
A. from the RMS Console, log in under the Data Processor Service Account, and check the
"Task Status" screen
B. on the Information server, review the Application log
C. in bv-Config, check the "Query Engine Diagnostics- Master" for Slave Query Engine job
statuses
D. in the Control Compliance Suite Console, on the Settings > System Topology Menu,
Choose "Monitor System Jobs"
Answer: C
Question: 6
In the Control Compliance Suite Asset System, "Asset Custodian" is an example of an asset
_____?
A. tag
B. permission
C. property
D. view
Answer: C
Question: 7
A policy has been submitted for review. Reviewers have made change requests to the policy,
and the policy review deadline has passed. What is the status of the policy?
A. In Review
B. Pending Approval
C. Draft
D. Approved
Answer: C
Real ASP C_TADM51_70 (System Administration (Oracle DB) with SAP NetWeaver 7.0) exam Q&As free download
1.Control of the SYSDBA and SYSOPER system privilege is totally outside the database itself.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
2.When the R13 update task aborts with an Oracle error ORA1653 - failure to allocate an extent for a
table in a specific tablespace - what action needs to be taken?
A. The tablespace should be reorganized.
B. The tablespace size should be increased by adding a new data file.
C. The table should be reorganized.
D. The storage parameter MAXEXTENTS must be increased.
E. After the cause of the error has been removed, the R13 update task must be reactivated.
Answer: B, E
3.Name the standard Database users created n Oracle. Note! More than one answer is correct. Please
click on the buttons next to the correct answers
A. SIDADM
B. ORASID
C. SYS
D. SAP
E. SYSTEM
Answer: C, E
4.Which files must be restored from tape to allow a full database restore and recovery?
A. Database control file, tablespace data files, and the database alert log.
B. Tablespace data files, database control file, and all archived database transaction logs created
since the last full backup.
C. $ORACLE_HOME, Oracle parameter file, tablespace data files.
D. Database control file, tablespace data files, R13 Syslog, R13 Transport directory.
E. Oracle parameter file, tablespace data files, and the Oracle control file.
Answer: B
5.Which of the following parameters influences the behavior of the Oracle cost based optimizer
A. TUNE_OPTIMIZER
B. OPTIMIZER MODE
C. CBO_ULTRA_WARP
D. DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT
E. dba/ora/use_hint
Answer: B, D, E
6.The SAP installation creates just one additional role called____________.
A. SAPDBA
Answer: A
7.What is the purpose of the Oracle ° OPS$connec¡± f unct i o
A. OPS$connect authorization allows an operating system user to connect to the database without
being prompted for a password.
B. OPS$connect is an Oracle command enabling whoever executes it to administer the database
without using sqldba.
C. OPS$connect is used n Oracle Parallel Server installations to enable remote database connections
over a LAN.
D. OPS$connect authorization is required of all database users and is required for connection to the
database.
E. OPS$connect enables the R13 System saposcol process to communicate and exchange data with
the database.
Answer: A
8.The Oracle tool to test the connection to the database with SID C11 ON HOST twdfO5O5 is Click on
the button next to the right answer.
A. TNSLISTENER
B. lsnrctl start
C. tnspingC11
D. CONNECT
E. BRCONNECT
Answer: C
9.An Instance error occurs when I or more Oracle background processes become corrupted. What
actions should the database administrator take to correct the problem?
A. This is a serious error. Call the Oracle hotline.
B. Shutdown the operating system and reinstall the Oracle software.
C. Shutdown abort and startup open. The SMON process will use the current redo log files and
checkpoint information from the control files to execute an automatic instance recovery upon
database startup.
D. Shutdown the operating system and turn all hardware off. After the hardware cools off start
everything up again and execute Orainst using the repair option.
E. Restore all missing files, apply the offline redo logs, update the control files, and execute the
startup open command.
Answer: C
10.Which of the following user types can be used for dialog free communication within the system?
A. Dialog
B. System
C. Service
D. Communication
E. Reference
Answer: B, D
11.Which of the following is true for the SQL statement highlighted on the ° Shar ed SQ¡± scr ee
Please choose the correct answer.
A. The statement is an expensive statement, because t is on top of the list.
B. The statement is an expensive statement, because it shows more than one million buffer gets.
C. The statement is an expensive statement, because the buffer gets in this statement exceed 5% of
the total buffer gets (reads) in this system.
D. The statement isan expensive statement, because the buffer gets n this statement exceed 5% of
the physical reads (disk reads) in this system.
E. The statement is not an expensive statement.
Answer: C
12.Mention two (2) OS users created each in UNIX and windows platform during the installation of SAP
on Oracle.
A. Windows: adm and SAPService UNIX: ora and adm
Answer: A
13.Based on SAP configuration guidelines for data security and performance, which of the following
statements is correct regarding the configuration revealed by this screen?
Please choose the correct answer.
A. This configuration meets SAP data security standards. The distribution of system components is
reasonable in terms of performance.
B. A significant performance improvement could be achieved by installing origlogA and mirrlogB on
the same disk, and origlogB and mirrlogA together on another disk.
C. The installation of the °sapr eor ¡± di r ectory on t he s ame di sk as mi rr l ogA and mi rr l ogB r epr esen
a potential data security problem.
D. OriglogA and origlogB may increase in size exponentially, and should not be installed on the same
disk as the $ORACLE_HOME directory.
E. Installing the components sapdatal to sapdata6 on disks of 4 GB is a waste of hardware because
these components never increase in size.
Answer: A
14.The SYSDBA and SYSOPER system privilege allow access to a database instance when the
database is
not open.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
15.Which statement is true of online Oracle database backups?
A. Users may only read data and may not enter data until after the backup is done.
B. Database transaction logs (online redo logs) are not written during online backups.
C. The tablespace data files and control file comprise the complete online backup and are all that is
necessary for restoring the database to a consistent status.
D. The database must be running in archivelog mode.
E. Online database backups are not supported by Oracle.
Answer: D
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
2.When the R13 update task aborts with an Oracle error ORA1653 - failure to allocate an extent for a
table in a specific tablespace - what action needs to be taken?
A. The tablespace should be reorganized.
B. The tablespace size should be increased by adding a new data file.
C. The table should be reorganized.
D. The storage parameter MAXEXTENTS must be increased.
E. After the cause of the error has been removed, the R13 update task must be reactivated.
Answer: B, E
3.Name the standard Database users created n Oracle. Note! More than one answer is correct. Please
click on the buttons next to the correct answers
A. SIDADM
B. ORASID
C. SYS
D. SAP
E. SYSTEM
Answer: C, E
4.Which files must be restored from tape to allow a full database restore and recovery?
A. Database control file, tablespace data files, and the database alert log.
B. Tablespace data files, database control file, and all archived database transaction logs created
since the last full backup.
C. $ORACLE_HOME, Oracle parameter file, tablespace data files.
D. Database control file, tablespace data files, R13 Syslog, R13 Transport directory.
E. Oracle parameter file, tablespace data files, and the Oracle control file.
Answer: B
5.Which of the following parameters influences the behavior of the Oracle cost based optimizer
A. TUNE_OPTIMIZER
B. OPTIMIZER MODE
C. CBO_ULTRA_WARP
D. DB_FILE_MULTIBLOCK_READ_COUNT
E. dba/ora/use_hint
Answer: B, D, E
6.The SAP installation creates just one additional role called____________.
A. SAPDBA
Answer: A
7.What is the purpose of the Oracle ° OPS$connec¡± f unct i o
A. OPS$connect authorization allows an operating system user to connect to the database without
being prompted for a password.
B. OPS$connect is an Oracle command enabling whoever executes it to administer the database
without using sqldba.
C. OPS$connect is used n Oracle Parallel Server installations to enable remote database connections
over a LAN.
D. OPS$connect authorization is required of all database users and is required for connection to the
database.
E. OPS$connect enables the R13 System saposcol process to communicate and exchange data with
the database.
Answer: A
8.The Oracle tool to test the connection to the database with SID C11 ON HOST twdfO5O5 is Click on
the button next to the right answer.
A. TNSLISTENER
B. lsnrctl start
C. tnspingC11
D. CONNECT
E. BRCONNECT
Answer: C
9.An Instance error occurs when I or more Oracle background processes become corrupted. What
actions should the database administrator take to correct the problem?
A. This is a serious error. Call the Oracle hotline.
B. Shutdown the operating system and reinstall the Oracle software.
C. Shutdown abort and startup open. The SMON process will use the current redo log files and
checkpoint information from the control files to execute an automatic instance recovery upon
database startup.
D. Shutdown the operating system and turn all hardware off. After the hardware cools off start
everything up again and execute Orainst using the repair option.
E. Restore all missing files, apply the offline redo logs, update the control files, and execute the
startup open command.
Answer: C
10.Which of the following user types can be used for dialog free communication within the system?
A. Dialog
B. System
C. Service
D. Communication
E. Reference
Answer: B, D
11.Which of the following is true for the SQL statement highlighted on the ° Shar ed SQ¡± scr ee
Please choose the correct answer.
A. The statement is an expensive statement, because t is on top of the list.
B. The statement is an expensive statement, because it shows more than one million buffer gets.
C. The statement is an expensive statement, because the buffer gets in this statement exceed 5% of
the total buffer gets (reads) in this system.
D. The statement isan expensive statement, because the buffer gets n this statement exceed 5% of
the physical reads (disk reads) in this system.
E. The statement is not an expensive statement.
Answer: C
12.Mention two (2) OS users created each in UNIX and windows platform during the installation of SAP
on Oracle.
A. Windows: adm and SAPService UNIX: ora and adm
Answer: A
13.Based on SAP configuration guidelines for data security and performance, which of the following
statements is correct regarding the configuration revealed by this screen?
Please choose the correct answer.
A. This configuration meets SAP data security standards. The distribution of system components is
reasonable in terms of performance.
B. A significant performance improvement could be achieved by installing origlogA and mirrlogB on
the same disk, and origlogB and mirrlogA together on another disk.
C. The installation of the °sapr eor ¡± di r ectory on t he s ame di sk as mi rr l ogA and mi rr l ogB r epr esen
a potential data security problem.
D. OriglogA and origlogB may increase in size exponentially, and should not be installed on the same
disk as the $ORACLE_HOME directory.
E. Installing the components sapdatal to sapdata6 on disks of 4 GB is a waste of hardware because
these components never increase in size.
Answer: A
14.The SYSDBA and SYSOPER system privilege allow access to a database instance when the
database is
not open.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A
15.Which statement is true of online Oracle database backups?
A. Users may only read data and may not enter data until after the backup is done.
B. Database transaction logs (online redo logs) are not written during online backups.
C. The tablespace data files and control file comprise the complete online backup and are all that is
necessary for restoring the database to a consistent status.
D. The database must be running in archivelog mode.
E. Online database backups are not supported by Oracle.
Answer: D
Real IBM 000-M39 (IBM WebSphere MQ Technical Sales Mastery Test v2) exam Q&As free download
1.Which topic string is NOT valid for a subscribing application to get all messages about fresh fruit if a
topic tree exists with the following topic hierarchy: deli/fresh; deli/fresh/fruit; deli/tinned/nuts;
deli/tinned/meat?
A. deli
B. deli/+/fruit
C. deli/fresh/fruit
D. deli/#
Answer: A
2.What is required for WebSphere MQ v7 to support publish-subscribe messaging?
A. A queue manager
B. A publish-subscribe broker that has the same name as the queue manager
C. A separate broker process that is associated with each queue manager
D. ASupportPac is available to provide publish-subscribe functionality
Answer: A
3.Which of the following is NOT a channel connection enhancement new in WebSphere MQ v7?
A. MQI channel connections can be shared
B. SSL encryption for each MQI Channel connection
C. Read-ahead for non-persistent messages
D. Automatic client reconnection
Answer: B
4.What is the name of the MQMD field that a message producer uses to ensure that no consumers
receive a message after a message has been on a destination queue for a specified period of time?
A. Timeout
B. Expiry
C. TimeToLive
D. MaxAge
Answer: B
5.In order to write messages to a queue what operation must be done first?
A. Connect to the queue
B. Verify queue is empty
C. Set the queue to read/write mode
D. Open the queue
Answer: D
topic tree exists with the following topic hierarchy: deli/fresh; deli/fresh/fruit; deli/tinned/nuts;
deli/tinned/meat?
A. deli
B. deli/+/fruit
C. deli/fresh/fruit
D. deli/#
Answer: A
2.What is required for WebSphere MQ v7 to support publish-subscribe messaging?
A. A queue manager
B. A publish-subscribe broker that has the same name as the queue manager
C. A separate broker process that is associated with each queue manager
D. ASupportPac is available to provide publish-subscribe functionality
Answer: A
3.Which of the following is NOT a channel connection enhancement new in WebSphere MQ v7?
A. MQI channel connections can be shared
B. SSL encryption for each MQI Channel connection
C. Read-ahead for non-persistent messages
D. Automatic client reconnection
Answer: B
4.What is the name of the MQMD field that a message producer uses to ensure that no consumers
receive a message after a message has been on a destination queue for a specified period of time?
A. Timeout
B. Expiry
C. TimeToLive
D. MaxAge
Answer: B
5.In order to write messages to a queue what operation must be done first?
A. Connect to the queue
B. Verify queue is empty
C. Set the queue to read/write mode
D. Open the queue
Answer: D
Real IBM 000-M48 (IBM Lotus Web Content Management Technical Sales Mastery Test v2) exam Q&As free download
1.The mapping between authoring templates and presentation templates is defined where in WCM?
A. Taxonomy
B. Component
C. Workflow Stage
D. Site Area
Answer: D
2.Which of the following items does the user NOT need access to in order to view content items?
A. Site Area
B. Library
C. Authoring Template
D. Presentation Template
Answer: C
3.A customer has developed a non-portal based web site that contains highly personalized content.
Which of the following caching options should be used to improve performance but still allow for the
personalized content delivery?
A. Dynacache
B. Advanced Caching
C. Prerendering
D. Basic Caching
Answer: B
4.Which of the following is used to define the form that allows users to create content?
A. Site Area
B. Content Component
C. Authoring Template
D. Presentation Template
Answer: C
5.The separation of how content is created from how content is displayed is facilitated by:
A. Sites and Site Areas
B. Authoring Templates and Presentation Templates
C. Site Areas and Authoring Templates
D. Sites and Presentation Templates
Answer: B
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A. Taxonomy
B. Component
C. Workflow Stage
D. Site Area
Answer: D
2.Which of the following items does the user NOT need access to in order to view content items?
A. Site Area
B. Library
C. Authoring Template
D. Presentation Template
Answer: C
3.A customer has developed a non-portal based web site that contains highly personalized content.
Which of the following caching options should be used to improve performance but still allow for the
personalized content delivery?
A. Dynacache
B. Advanced Caching
C. Prerendering
D. Basic Caching
Answer: B
4.Which of the following is used to define the form that allows users to create content?
A. Site Area
B. Content Component
C. Authoring Template
D. Presentation Template
Answer: C
5.The separation of how content is created from how content is displayed is facilitated by:
A. Sites and Site Areas
B. Authoring Templates and Presentation Templates
C. Site Areas and Authoring Templates
D. Sites and Presentation Templates
Answer: B
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Real IBM 000-M65 (IIBM Lotus XPages Technical Sales Mastery Test v1) exam Q&As free download
1.Which of the following is NOT one of the performance enhancements to XPages in the 8.5.1 release?
A. New properties for better control of the JSF lifecycle
B. Domino Designer built on top of Eclipse
C. JavaScript interpreter performance
D. End user experience / browser rendering
Answer: B
2.Which of the following provides an integrated development environment for building XPages
applications?
A. Lotus Domino Messaging Express
B. Lotus Domino Administrator
C. Lotus Domino Designer
D. Lotus Collaboration Express
Answer: C
3.How are iNotes (DWA) widgets enabled?
A. formsXX.nsf
B. Mail policies
C. Dojo toolkit
D. Mail template settings
Answer: B
4.Where should a Developer go to freely manipulate inline style coding for an object?
A. Design
B. Source
C. Properties
D. Controls
Answer: B
5.What are some of the questions you should ask yourself when analyzing your existing Domino NSF
application for modernizing with XPages?
A. All of the below
B. How much UI code do you have?
C. How complex are your subs and functions?
D. How do you use Rich Text, if any at all?
Answer: A
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A. New properties for better control of the JSF lifecycle
B. Domino Designer built on top of Eclipse
C. JavaScript interpreter performance
D. End user experience / browser rendering
Answer: B
2.Which of the following provides an integrated development environment for building XPages
applications?
A. Lotus Domino Messaging Express
B. Lotus Domino Administrator
C. Lotus Domino Designer
D. Lotus Collaboration Express
Answer: C
3.How are iNotes (DWA) widgets enabled?
A. formsXX.nsf
B. Mail policies
C. Dojo toolkit
D. Mail template settings
Answer: B
4.Where should a Developer go to freely manipulate inline style coding for an object?
A. Design
B. Source
C. Properties
D. Controls
Answer: B
5.What are some of the questions you should ask yourself when analyzing your existing Domino NSF
application for modernizing with XPages?
A. All of the below
B. How much UI code do you have?
C. How complex are your subs and functions?
D. How do you use Rich Text, if any at all?
Answer: A
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Real IBM 000-M71 (IBM WebSphere Portal 7.0 Solution) exam Q&As free download
1.An OnDemand system is being configured to use Tivoli Storage Manager (TSM) to archive documents.
What task must be performed to make TSM storage available to the OnDemand system?
A. Install TSM on the object server and configure it to provide an archive storage pool for theOnDemand
database
B. Install TSM on the library server and configure it to provide a backup storage pool for theOnDemand
database
C. Configure a client (storage) node in each TSM storage pool that will be used to storeOnDemand data
D. Install and configure an HTTP server on the object server to handle storage requests
betweenOnDemand and TSM
Answer: C
2.Failure to designate at least one date or date/time field as egment?will cause which of the following to
occur during a search operation?Failure to designate at least one date or date/time field as ?egment?will
cause which of the following to occur during a search operation?
A. end-users will not be able to search using a date field
B. all database tables belonging to that Application Group will be searched, potentially causing poor
performance
C. end-users will receive a warning message( field has not been identified as a database segment
field)end-users will receive a warning message (? field has not been identified as a database segment
field?)
D. the document indexes will never expire whenarsmaint is run
Answer: B
3.An OnDemand application is being created to load very large reports (1000+ pages each). In order to
provide better usability and retrieval performance, what option should be selected on the Load
Information tab?
A. disable data compression
B. change the Compressed Object Size to at least the size of the largest report
C. specify Large Object
D. choose the appropriate Data Compression option only after testing sample reports for the best
compression factor
Answer: C
4.By default, an OnDemand User Administrator can create what types of users?
A. Only User
B. User and User Administrator
C. User, User Administrator, Application Group/Folder/Cabinet Administrator
D. Any user type
Answer: B
5.In order to create a default date-range search option for a search to specify the most recent 3 months,
which of the following actions must be performed?
A. Change the Application Group (Field Information tab) default date-range interval
B. Change the Application (Load Information tab) default date-range interval
C. Change the Folder (Field Information tab) default date-range interval
D. Change the Folder (Field Definition tab) Mapping Type from single to range
Answer: C
What task must be performed to make TSM storage available to the OnDemand system?
A. Install TSM on the object server and configure it to provide an archive storage pool for theOnDemand
database
B. Install TSM on the library server and configure it to provide a backup storage pool for theOnDemand
database
C. Configure a client (storage) node in each TSM storage pool that will be used to storeOnDemand data
D. Install and configure an HTTP server on the object server to handle storage requests
betweenOnDemand and TSM
Answer: C
2.Failure to designate at least one date or date/time field as egment?will cause which of the following to
occur during a search operation?Failure to designate at least one date or date/time field as ?egment?will
cause which of the following to occur during a search operation?
A. end-users will not be able to search using a date field
B. all database tables belonging to that Application Group will be searched, potentially causing poor
performance
C. end-users will receive a warning message( field has not been identified as a database segment
field)end-users will receive a warning message (? field has not been identified as a database segment
field?)
D. the document indexes will never expire whenarsmaint is run
Answer: B
3.An OnDemand application is being created to load very large reports (1000+ pages each). In order to
provide better usability and retrieval performance, what option should be selected on the Load
Information tab?
A. disable data compression
B. change the Compressed Object Size to at least the size of the largest report
C. specify Large Object
D. choose the appropriate Data Compression option only after testing sample reports for the best
compression factor
Answer: C
4.By default, an OnDemand User Administrator can create what types of users?
A. Only User
B. User and User Administrator
C. User, User Administrator, Application Group/Folder/Cabinet Administrator
D. Any user type
Answer: B
5.In order to create a default date-range search option for a search to specify the most recent 3 months,
which of the following actions must be performed?
A. Change the Application Group (Field Information tab) default date-range interval
B. Change the Application (Load Information tab) default date-range interval
C. Change the Folder (Field Information tab) default date-range interval
D. Change the Folder (Field Definition tab) Mapping Type from single to range
Answer: C
Real IBM 1D0-571 (CIW v5 Security Essentials) exam Q&As free download
1.An application is creating hashes of each file on an attached storage device. Which of the following will
typically occur during this process?
A. An increase in the amount of time it takes for the system to respond to requests
B. Reduced risk of an attack
C. Increased risk of an attack
D. A reduction in the amount of time it takes for the system to respond to requests
Answer: A
2.You have been assigned to configure a DMZ that uses multiple firewall components. Specifically, you
must configure a router that will authoritatively monitor and, if necessary, block traffic. This device will be
the last one that inspects traffic before it passes to the internal network. Which term best describes this
device?
A. Screening router
B. Bastion host
C. Proxy server
D. Choke router
Answer: D
3.A distributed denial-of-service (DDOS) attack has occurred where both ICMP and TCP packets have
crashed the company's Web server. Which of the following techniques will best help reduce the severity
of this attack?
A. Filtering traffic at the firewall
B. Changing your ISP
C. Installing Apache Server rather than Microsoft IIS
D. Placing the database and the Web server on separate systems
Answer: A
4.Which of the following is considered to be the most secure default firewall policy, yet usually causes the
most work from an administrative perspective?
A. Configuring the firewall to respond automatically to threats
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
3 / 4
B. Blocking all access by default, then allowing only necessary connections
C. Configuring the firewall to coordinate with the intrusion-detection system
D. Allowing all access by default, then blocking only suspect network connections
Answer: B
5.Which of the following is most likely to pose a security threat to a Web server?
A. CGI scripts
B. Database connections
C. Flash or Silverlight animation files
D. LDAP servers
Answer: A
6.What is the first tool needed to create a secure networking environment?
A. User authentication
B. Confidentiality
C. Security policy
D. Auditing
Answer: C
7.Irina has contracted with a company to provide Web design consulting services. The company has
asked her to use several large files available via an HTTP server. The IT department has provided Irina
with user name and password, as well as the DNS name of the HTTP server. She then used this
information to obtain the files she needs to complete her task using Mozilla Firefox. Which of the following
is a primary risk factor when authenticating with a standard HTTP server?
A. HTTP usescleartext transmission during authentication, which can lead to a man-in-the-middle attack.
B. Irina has used the wrong application for this protocol, thus increasing the likelihood of a
man-inthe-middle attack.
C. A standard HTTP connection uses public-key encryption that is not sufficiently strong, inviting the
possibility of a man-in-the-middle attack.
D. Irina has accessed the Web server using a non-standard Web browser.
Answer: A
8.Requests for Web-based resources have become unacceptably slow. You have been assigned to
implement a solution that helps solve this problem. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. Enablestateful multi-layer inspection on the packet filter
B. Implement caching on the network proxy server
C. Enable authentication on the network proxy server
D. Implement a screening router on the network DMZ
Answer: B
9.You have discovered that the ls, su and ps commands no longer function as expected. They do not
return information in a manner similar to any other Linux system. Also, the implementation of Tripwire you
have installed on this server is returning new hash values. Which of the following has most likely
occurred?
A. Atrojan has attacked the system.
B. A SQL injection attack has occurred.
C. A spyware application has been installed.
D. A root kit has been installed on the system.
Answer: D
10.Which of the following organizations provides regular updates concerning security breaches and
issues?
A. IETF
B. ISO
C. ICANN
D. CERT
Answer: D
typically occur during this process?
A. An increase in the amount of time it takes for the system to respond to requests
B. Reduced risk of an attack
C. Increased risk of an attack
D. A reduction in the amount of time it takes for the system to respond to requests
Answer: A
2.You have been assigned to configure a DMZ that uses multiple firewall components. Specifically, you
must configure a router that will authoritatively monitor and, if necessary, block traffic. This device will be
the last one that inspects traffic before it passes to the internal network. Which term best describes this
device?
A. Screening router
B. Bastion host
C. Proxy server
D. Choke router
Answer: D
3.A distributed denial-of-service (DDOS) attack has occurred where both ICMP and TCP packets have
crashed the company's Web server. Which of the following techniques will best help reduce the severity
of this attack?
A. Filtering traffic at the firewall
B. Changing your ISP
C. Installing Apache Server rather than Microsoft IIS
D. Placing the database and the Web server on separate systems
Answer: A
4.Which of the following is considered to be the most secure default firewall policy, yet usually causes the
most work from an administrative perspective?
A. Configuring the firewall to respond automatically to threats
The safer , easier way to help you pass any IT exams.
3 / 4
B. Blocking all access by default, then allowing only necessary connections
C. Configuring the firewall to coordinate with the intrusion-detection system
D. Allowing all access by default, then blocking only suspect network connections
Answer: B
5.Which of the following is most likely to pose a security threat to a Web server?
A. CGI scripts
B. Database connections
C. Flash or Silverlight animation files
D. LDAP servers
Answer: A
6.What is the first tool needed to create a secure networking environment?
A. User authentication
B. Confidentiality
C. Security policy
D. Auditing
Answer: C
7.Irina has contracted with a company to provide Web design consulting services. The company has
asked her to use several large files available via an HTTP server. The IT department has provided Irina
with user name and password, as well as the DNS name of the HTTP server. She then used this
information to obtain the files she needs to complete her task using Mozilla Firefox. Which of the following
is a primary risk factor when authenticating with a standard HTTP server?
A. HTTP usescleartext transmission during authentication, which can lead to a man-in-the-middle attack.
B. Irina has used the wrong application for this protocol, thus increasing the likelihood of a
man-inthe-middle attack.
C. A standard HTTP connection uses public-key encryption that is not sufficiently strong, inviting the
possibility of a man-in-the-middle attack.
D. Irina has accessed the Web server using a non-standard Web browser.
Answer: A
8.Requests for Web-based resources have become unacceptably slow. You have been assigned to
implement a solution that helps solve this problem. Which of the following would you recommend?
A. Enablestateful multi-layer inspection on the packet filter
B. Implement caching on the network proxy server
C. Enable authentication on the network proxy server
D. Implement a screening router on the network DMZ
Answer: B
9.You have discovered that the ls, su and ps commands no longer function as expected. They do not
return information in a manner similar to any other Linux system. Also, the implementation of Tripwire you
have installed on this server is returning new hash values. Which of the following has most likely
occurred?
A. Atrojan has attacked the system.
B. A SQL injection attack has occurred.
C. A spyware application has been installed.
D. A root kit has been installed on the system.
Answer: D
10.Which of the following organizations provides regular updates concerning security breaches and
issues?
A. IETF
B. ISO
C. ICANN
D. CERT
Answer: D
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